ChE Correlation Course 1 – 2nd Long Examination

Instructions: Encircle/Write the letter of your answer for each question. For problem solving items, include
your complete solution. No solution = no point even if you chose the correct answer.

1. Ionic solids
A. are hard materials of low melting point C. are hard materials of high melting point
B. are soft materials of low melting point D. are soft materials of high melting point
2. Which of the following enzymes give flavor in cheese?
A. lactose B. lipase C. invertase D. amylase
3. A sanitary landfill is 21 hectares and 10 m deep. The daily loading of garbage is 850 m 3/day. What is
the life at the landfill in years if the garbage is compacted in the landfill with twice its loading density?
A. 16 years B. 19.0 years C. 13.5 years D. 16.3 years
4. Which one of the following substances found in the atmosphere will absorb radiation in the infrared
portion of the spectrum?
A. O2 B. Ar C. N2 D. CO2
5. The diploid cell resulting from the fusion of male and female gametes.
A. gametes B. zygote C. template D. stigma
6. When an enzyme is inactivated by a change in pH, this is known as
A. uncompetitive inhibition C. competitive inhibition
B. non-competitive inhibition D. non-specific inhibition
7. The vapor pressure 𝑝 of liquid sulfur trioxide, SO3, may be calculated for different temperatures T
using the expression:
𝐵
log 𝑝 = 𝐴 −
𝑇

Where, for the temperature range 24 to 48˚C, A = 9.117 and B = 1771 K and 𝑝 is in kPa. What is the
vapor pressure of liquid sulfur trioxide at 32˚C?
A. 0.82 MPa B. 1.12 MPa C. 1.87 MPa D. 2.20 MPa
8. When liquid bromobenzene was vaporized at 30 ˚C by passing 20 L of dry air through it, the loss in
weight of the liquid was 0.9414 gram. The barometric pressure was 760 mm Hg. Approximately what
is the vapor pressure at this temperature?
A. 3.28 mm Hg B. 4.79 mm Hg C. 5.67 mm Hg D. 6.57 mm Hg
9. An atomic face-centered cubic crystal is 3.92 angstrom on an edge and has a density of 21.5 g/cm 3.
What is its atomic weight?
A. 195 B. 207 C. 48.8 D. 108
10. All of the following statements underline the kinetic molecular theory of gases except?
A. Gas molecules have no intermolecular forces
B. Gas particles are in random motion
C. The collisions between the gas particles are elastic
D. The average kinetic energy is proportional to the temperature (in °C) of the gas
For items 11-13
Aspergillus niger is used to produce gluconic acid. Product synthesis is monitored in a fermenter;
gluconic acid concentration is measured as a function of time for the first 39 h of culture.
Time (h) Acid concentration
(g/L)
0 3.6
16 22
24 51
28 66
32 97
39 167
11. Determine the order of reaction
A. Zero order C. Second order
B. First order D. It follows Michaelis-Menten kinetics
12. Determine the rate constant
A. 3.85 g/L-h B. 0.10 /h C. 0.007 L/g-h D. 2.76 L 2/g2-h
13. Estimate the product concentration after 20 h
A. 5.6 g/L B. 29.49 g/L C. 11.1 g/L D. 34.7 g/L
14. Ozone is all of the following except
A. bleaching agent C. less soluble in water than in oxygen
B. oxidizing agent D. disinfectant
15. Common microorganism used for penicillin manufacture is
A. mold B. protozoa C. bacteria D. algae
16. The following data are given for an TSS determination: filtered 100 mL sample; tare weight = 14.9913
g; TSS= 1312 mg/L. The final weight after drying in grams was
A. 14.8601 B. 14.7289 C. 15.1225 D.15.2537
17. In a Michaelis-Menten enzyme mechanism, what substrate concentrations (relative to K m) are
needed for the reaction rate to be 0.5 times Vmax?
A. (1/9) Km B. (1/3) Km C. 1.0 Km D. 9.0 Km
18. A solution is prepared at 20˚C containing 7.8% wt. benzene if non-volatile oil (MW=422). Vapor
pressure of benzene at 20˚C is 75 mmHg. What is the equilibrium pressure of benzene vapor (in
mmHg) above the solution?
A. 34.3 B. 41.5 C. 7.56 D. 23.54
19. Ability of a material to absorb energy in deformation in the plastic range is characterized as its
A. ductility B. toughness C. creep D. resilience
20. Which sequence show “the central dogma” of molecular biology?
A. DNA → protein → amino acids C. RNA → protein → DNA
B. RNA → DNA → protein D. DNA → RNA → protein
21. A sequence of three nucleotides in mRNA that directs the incorporation of an amino acid during
protein synthesis or signals the start or stop of translation.
A. codon B. nucleotides C. DNA D. polymerase
22. The dilution factor P for an unseeded mixture of waste and water is 0.030. The DO of the mixture is
initially 9.0 mg/L, and after five days it has dropped to 3.0 mg/L. The reaction rate constant k has
been found to be 0.22/day. What is the five-day BOD of the waste?
A. 200 mg/L B. 220 mg/L C. 250 mg/L D. 300 mg/L
23. Ozone, O3, filters out large amount of ultraviolet and other dangerous radiations from the sun. it is
found in the
 A. troposphere B. stratosphere C. thermosphere D. lithosphere
24. Hydrogen gas is produced when zinc reacts with sulfuric acid
𝑍𝑛(𝑠) + 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 (𝑎𝑞) → 𝑍𝑛𝑆𝑂4 (𝑎𝑞) + 𝐻2 (𝑔)
If 195 mL of wet H2 is collected over water at 24°C and a barometer pressure of 738 torr, how many
grams of Zn have been consumed?
A. 0.437 g Zn B. 0.402 g Zn C. 0.414 g Zn D. 4.96 g Zn
25. Pick out the wrong statement.
A. The waves used in the long-distance radio communication are reflected back to earth by
stratosphere
B. The concentric atmosphere layer just above troposphere is called stratosphere, which is rich
in ozone
C. Mesosphere is characterized by very low atmospheric pressure and low temperature
D. Troposphere is a dusty zone containing water vapor and clouds
26. A gas tends to expand indefinitely into a vacuum or into another gas. This ability is referred to as
A. viscosity B. turbulence C. compressibility D. diffusion
27. Solutions of hydrogen chloride in chlorobenzene obeys Henry’s Law. K=P/m=0.438 where P is given
in the atmosphere and m is the molality. What is the partial pressure of HCl in mmHg over a 1% by
weight solution of HCl in chlorobenzene?
A. 74.4 B. 87.5 C. 92.1 D. 96.75
28. Turnover number is the number of _______ that can be covered per unit time per active site on the
enzyme.
A. Inhibitor molecules C. Substrate molecules
B. Enzyme-substrate molecules D. Enzyme-substrate-inhibitor molecule
29. When growth of microorganism is inhibited by the presence of another, it is known as
A. commensalism B. neutralism C. parasitism D. mutualism
30. Water that falls to Earth’s surface may enter the groundwater by which process?
A. transpiration B. precipitation C. infiltration D. condensation
31. Amylene C5H10 and acetic acid react to give the ester according to the reaction:
𝐶5 𝐻10 + 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 ⇌ 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐶5 𝐻11
What is the value of Kc if 0.00645 mole of amylene and 0.001 mole of acetic acid mixed in 845 mL of
a certain inert solvent react to give 0.000734 mole of ester?
A. 4 B. 0.25 C. 6 D. 3
32. Consider the following reaction at equilibrium:
3𝐻2(𝑔) + 𝑁2(𝑔) ⇋ 2𝑁𝐻3 (𝑔) + 92 𝑘𝐽
Which single change in conditions will cause a shift in equilibrium toward an increase in production
of NH3?
A. addition of an inert gas C. removal of hydrogen gas
B. increase in volume of the system D. increase in pressure of the system
33. The destruction of an enzyme’s catalytic power by changing its molecular structure is
A. hydrolysis B. sypsis C. lyasis D. denaturation
For items 34 and 35
A substrate is converted to a product by the catalytic action of an enzyme. Assume that the Michaelis-
Menten kinetics parameters for this enzyme are: KM=0.04 mol/L and Vmax=12.5 mol/L-min.
34. What should be the size of a steady state CSTR to convert 98% of the incoming substrate (C S0=15
mol/L) with a flow rate of 10 L/h?
A. 0.11 L B. 0.22 L C. 0.33 L D. 0.44 L
35. If a PFR of size equal to that of the CSTR in item 23 is used, what would be the substrate conversion?
 A. 0.245 B. 0.896 C. 0.989 D. 0.99
36. Which one of the following does not result in the formation of acid rain?
A. nitrogen dioxide B. nitrogen monoxide C. carbon dioxide D. methane
37. An oxygen molecule has 10 the mass of a hydrogen molecule. A sample of hydrogen gas whose
molecules have the same average kinetic energy as the molecules in a sample of oxygen at 400˚K is
at a temperature of
A. 25 K B. 400 K C. 1600 K D. 6400 K
38. When a temperature of solid is raised. It expands in all directions. Certain crystals are found to have
different expansivities along different axes. However, many of the common materials have the same
properties in all directions. The latter substances are called
A. isotropic substances B. isogonic substances C. isotopic substances D. isothermal
39. Chemical agents applied to tissues to prevent infection by killing or inhibiting pathogens
A. antitoxin B. antiseptic C. antimicrobial agent D. antibiotic
40. Any molecule that reduces the rate of an enzyme reaction is a/an
A. Haloenzyme B. Cofactor C. Inhibitor D. Ligand
41. Slow and progressive deformation of a material with time under constant stress is called
A. creep B. erosion C. resilience D. none of these
42. Equimolar amounts of hydrogen and oxygen gas, at the same temperature, are released into a larger
container. The ratio of the rate of diffusion of the hydrogen molecules to that of the molecules of
oxygen would be
A. 256:1 B. 16:1 C. 1:16 D. 4:1
43. A waste is classified as hazardous if it exhibits the following except
A. ignitability B. corrosivity C. toxicity D. unreactivity
44. What class of freshwater supply requires complete treatment (coagulation, sedimentation, filtration,
disinfection) in order to meet the national standard for Drinking Water.
A. Class AA B. Class A C. Class B D. Class C
45. Vitamin E is also known as
A. calciferol B. axerophthol C. ascorbic acid D. tocopherol
46. With regards to corrosion of materials, passivation is the process that
A. intensifies deterioration C. intensifies deterioration temporarily
B. changes the composition of the material D. inhibits further deterioration
47. A 10-mL sample of sewage mixed with enough water to fill a 300-mL bottle has an initial DO of 9
mg/L. To help assure an accurate test, it is desirable to have at least a 2 mg/L drop in DO during the
five-day run, and the final DO should be at least 2 mg/L. For what range of BOD’s would this dilution
produce the desired results? (unseeded five-day BOD test)
A.60-210 mg/L B. 100-200 mg/L C.60-150 mg/L D. 120-210 mg/L
48. A 220 g sample of quinine, C 6H4O2 is burned in a bomb calorimeter whose total heat capacity is 7.854
kJ/°C. The temperature of calorimeter increases from 23.44°C to 30.57°C. What is the heat of
combustion per gram of quinine? Per mole of quinine. (molecular weight of quinine is 108.1)
A. -123kJ/g, -13300 kJ/mol C. -25.5 kJ/g, -235 kJ/mol
B. -25.5kJ/kg, -2750 kJ/mol D. -3.57 kJ/g, -385 kJ/mol
49. The fluid portion occupying the whole portion of a cell.
A. ribosomes B. vacuole C. cytoplasm D. lysosome
50. 32 grams of a compound X when dissolved in 450 grams of CCl4 shall raise the boiling point by 6.21˚C.
What is the molecular weight of X? The molal boiling point constant of CCl 4 is 5.03 ˚C/molal.
A. 29 B. 37 C. 58 D. 44
51. Also known as the “Toxic and Hazardous Waste Management Act of 1990”.
A. RA 8749 B. RA 6969 C. PD 1152 D. PD 1151
52. Which one of the following statements about Avogadro’s law and its application is correct?
A. equal volumes of neon and nitro gen contain the same number of atoms at STP
B. equal volumes of neon and nitrogen contain the same number of molecules at STP
C. equal masses of neon and nitrogen contain the same number of molecules
D. equal masses of neon and nitrogen have the same volume at STP
53. What is the quantity of heat evolved when 100g of H2O(l) are formed from the combustion of H2(g)
and O2(g)?
𝐻2 (𝑔) + 0.5 𝑂2 (𝑔) → 𝐻2 𝑂(𝑙) Δ𝐻 = 285.8 𝑘𝐽

A. 285.8 kJ B. 51.44 kJ C.2297 kJ D. 1587 kJ

54. Michaelis-Menten model for enzyme kinetics suggests that formation of stable enzyme-substrate
complex is favored when
A. KM is low B. KM is high C. Vmax is 0 D. Vmax is large
55. A type of microorganism used for monitoring the pathogenic property of water.
A. acidity B. hardness C. coliform D. dissolved
For items 56-58
Zymoonas mobilis is used to convert glucose to ethanol in a batch fermenter under anaerobic
conditions. The yield of biomass from substrate is 0.06 g/g; YPX=7.7 g/g. The maintenance coefficient
is 2.2 g/g-h; the specific rate of product formation due to maintenance is 1.1/h. The maximum specific
growth rate of Z. mobilis is approximately 0.3/h. Five grams of bacteria are inoculated into 50 L of
medium containing 12 g/L glucose. Determine the batch culture time required to:
56. Produce 10 g of biomass.
A. 3.4 h B. 3.7 h C. 5.4 h D. 5.7 h
57. Achieve 90% substrate conversion.
A. 3.4 h B. 3.7 h C. 5.4 h D. 5.7 h
58. Produce 100 g ethanol.
A. 3.4 h B. 3.7 h C. 5.4 h D. 5.7 h
59. It is defined as the average distance a molecule traverses before colliding with other molecules.
A. mean free path B. collision distance C. collision length D. translation
60. The process in which an exact copy of parental DNA or RNA is made with the parental molecule
serving as a template
A. transcription B. translation C. replication D. transformation
61. Which of the following best describes the role played by nitrogen-fixing bacteria in the nitrogen
cycle?
A. they create organic nitrogen C. they convert ammonia to nitrates
B. they convert nitrates to ammonia D. they convert nitrogen to molecular nitrogen
62. Radon is a health hazard because
A. it is a gas that can be inhaled and then decays to a solid that resides in the lungs
B. it is a gas that is extremely soluble in the bloodstream and it decays in vital organs
C. it is a gas that enters the body easily and targets the thyroid because it is chemically similar to
Iodine
D. it is a gas that enters the easily and targets bones since it is chemically similar to calcium
63. When NO2 is cooled to room temperature, some of it reacts to form a dimmer, N2O4, through the
reaction 2𝑁𝑂2 → 𝑁2 𝑂4 . Suppose 15.2 g of NO2 is placed in a 10 L flask at a high temperature and the
flask is cooled at 25°C. The total pressure is measured to be 0.500 atm. What is the partial pressure
of NO2 in the flask after the reaction come to equilibrium?
A. 0.19 atm B. 0.25 atm C. 0.28 atm D. 0.32 atm
64. The correct relation between TOD, BOD and COD is given by
 A. TOD > BOD > COD C. BOD > COD > TOD
B. TOD > COD > BOD D. COD > BOD > TOD
65. In _____, the inhibitor does not affect the value of V max but affects the value of KM.
A. Competitive inhibition C. Uncompetitive inhibition
B. Noncompetitive inhibition D. Substrate inhibition
66. A midnight dumper discharged a tank truck full of industrial waste in a gravel pit. The truck was
spotted there 3 days and a pool of pure waste remains. A laboratory technician determined that the
waste has a 5-day BOD of 80 mg/L rate constant of 0.1 per day. Three factories in the vicinity generate
organic wastes: a winery (ultimate BOD=275 mg vinegar manufacturer (ultimate BOD=80 mg/L) and
a pharmaceutical company (ultimate BOD=200 mg/L). Determine the source of the waste
A. Winery C. Pharmaceutical company
B. Vinegar Manufacturer D. Cannot be determined
67. Which of the following is/are intensive properties?
I. Temperature II. Pressure III. Composition IV. Mass
A. I only B. IV only C. I and II D. I, II and III
68. The three measurements that are essential in calculating the solids and organics on a waste water
treatment plant are
A. Flow, BOD, DO B. Flow, BOD, TSS C. BOD, TSS, DO D. BOD, TSS, pH
69. The major components in acid rain are acids form from _____.
A. NOx and SOx B. SOx and CO2 C. NOx and CO2 D. CO and CO2
70. Which of the following statements are true?
I. Colligative properties depend on the number of solute molecules not on the nature of the solute
molecules.
II. When two solutions of different concentrations are separated by a semi-permeable membrane,
osmosis allows the only solvent molecules to pass through the membrane.
A. I only B. II only C. I and II D. None