Marking Scheme links are on each paper

20 Sets
Class : 12th
Sub : Geography
Disclaimer :
1. These papers are based on the SQP released by CBSE and
published by a private organization just for the practice of
the students.
2. CBSE has not released these papers and CBSE is not related to
these papers in any manner.
3. Publisher of these papers clearly state that these papers are
only for practice of students and questions may not be come in
main exam.
4. Please do not spread any rumors that any one paper will be
coming in main exam.
Page 1 NODIA Sample Paper 1 Geography Class 12

Sample Paper 1
GEOGRAPHY (029)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 70
General Instructions:
(i) Question paper is divided into 4 sections A ,B,C and D
(ii) In section A question number 1 to 17 are MCQ type questions.
(iii)In section B question number 18-23 are SA type questions(80-100 words). Question 18 and 19 are
Source based questions.
(iv) In section C question number 24 to 28 are Long Answer based questions (120-150 words).
(v) In section D question number 29 and 30 are Map based questions having 5 sub parts.

Section A
1. Which of the following rivers has the highest replenishable groundwater resource in India ?
(a) Indus (b) Brahmaputra
(c) Ganga (d) Godavari

2. Which of the following parts of a river have the best quality water?
(a) The delta part (b) The part in the mountains
(c) The plains part (d) The part in the valleys

3. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

Rivers Polluted Place
(a) Yamuna Lucknow
(b) Kali Muzaffarnagar
(c) Ganga Kanpur
(d) Sabarmati Gandhinagar

4. Identify the correct order of location from West to East, for the given headquarters of railway zones.
(a) Mumbai, New Delhi, Allahabad, Kolkata (b) New Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Allahabad
(c) New Delhi, Mumbai, Allahabad, Kolkata (d) Mumbai, Allahabad, New Delhi, Kolkata

5. Gathering is practiced in the______basin.

(a) Amazon (b) Ganga
(c) Hwang Ho (d) Nile

6. Which of the following mineral is used in smelting of iron-ore?

(a) Mica (b) Manganese
(c) Copper (d) Bauxite

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Page 2 NODIA Sample Paper 1 Geography Class 12

7. Arrange the following regions given below, in order of deceasing density of their population.
(i) North Amrica (ii) Asia
(iii) Europe (iv) Africa
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (b) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(c) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i) (d) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)

8. Assertion : Barter system promoted trade and was easy to manage.

Reason : In primitive societies, it was easy to found someone who need same commodities as one
needed to exchange.
(a) Only assertion is correct
(b) Only reason is correct.
(c) Both assertion and reason are correct. Reason is correct explanation of assertion
(d) Both assertion and reason are incorrect

9. Which of the following schools of thought attributed the current social problems to development of
capitalism?
(a) Radical School (b) Behavioural School
(c) Welfare School (d) Humanistic School

10. Which of the following is not a sub-field of social geography?

(a) Military geography (b) Behavioural geography
(c) Gender geography (d) Geography of leisure

11. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

Category of Density of Population States/UTs
(a) State with highest density West Bengal
(b) State with low density Uttar Pradesh
(c) State with moderate density Assam
(d) UT with highest density Daman and Diu

12. Who gave the term ‘conurbation’?

(a) Jean Gottman (b) Patrick Geddes
(c) Walter Griffin (d) Lewis Mumford

13. Assertion : Railways are most suited for large volume bulky materials over short distance.
Reason : Railway networks are well developed and can reach hinterlands.
(a) Only assertion is correct
(b) Only reason is correct
(c) Both assertion and reason are correct. Reason is correct explanation of assertion
(d) Both are correct but not related to each other

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Page 3 NODIA Sample Paper 1 Geography Class 12

14. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer.
I. Rearing is today practiced at the subsistence or commercial levels.
II. Animal rearing depends upon the geographical factors and levels of technological development.
(a) Only statement I is correct
(b) Only statement II is correct
(c) Both the statements are correct and statement II correctly explains statement I
(d) Both the statements are incorrect

Directions : Read the graph and answer question no 15 to 17.

15. Which product accounted for lowest proportion of export in 2005?

(a) Fuel products (b) Agricultural products
(c) Manufactured products (d) None of the above

16. Which product accounted for the highest proportion of exports in 2015?
(a) Manufactured products (b) Agricultural products
(c) Fuel products (d) None of the above

17. When value of imports is more than the value of exports of a country, it is known as
(a) favourable balance of trade. (b) fair balance of trade.
(c) negative balance of trade. (d) equal balance of trade.

Section B
18. Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Rivers, canals, lakes and coastal areas have been important waterways since time immemorial. Boats
and steamers are used as means of transport for cargo and passengers. The development of inland
waterways is dependent on the navigability width and depth of the channel, continuity in the water
flow, and transport technology in use. Rivers are the only means of transport in dense forests. Very
heavy cargo like coal, cement, timber and metallic ores can be transported through inland waterways. In
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Page 4 NODIA Sample Paper 1 Geography Class 12

ancient times, riverways were the main highways of transportation as in the case of India.
But they lost importance because of competition from railways, lack of water due to diversion for
irrigation, and their poor maintenance. The significance of rivers as inland waterways for domestic and
international transport and trade has been recognised throughout the developed world. Despite inherent
limitations, many rivers have been modified to enhance their navigability by dredging, stabilising river
banks and building dams and barrages for regulating the flow of water.
The following river waterways are some of the world’s important highways of commerce. The Rhine
flows through Germany and the Netherlands. It is navigable for 700 km from Rotterdam, at its mouth
in the Netherlands to Basel in Switzerland. Ocean-going vessels can reach up to Cologne. The Ruhr
river joins the Rhine from the East. It flows through a rich coalfield and the whole basin has become a
prosperous manufacturing area. Dusseldorf is the Rhine port for this region.
Questions :
(i) What is the result of lack of navigable waters and development of other means of transport?
(ii) How can we improve water way navigability?
(iii) What is the navigable length of Volga waterway for transport?

19. What were the major causes for the stagnant growth of India’s population from 1901 to 1921?

20. Observe the graph given below and answer the following questions.
Number of years for world population to increase by 1 billion

(i) In how many years population grow from 1 billion to 2 billion?

(ii) What were the major factors responsible for reduction in the time of population doubling?
(iii) During which year, it took maximum time in doubling of the population?

21. What is Human Poverty Index? Mention the four indicators used to measure this index.

22. “Modern economic development in the world is mainly the result of the development of quaternary
services.” Analyse the statement.


O
“Service sector is significant for modern economic development.” Analyse the statement.

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Page 5 NODIA Sample Paper 1 Geography Class 12

23. What are the ways of recycle and reuse of water?

O
What are the silent features of National Water Policy, 2002?

Section C
24. What are conventional source of energy and why are they essential for development of India?

25. How is the use of plastic bags harmful for environmental degradation? Evaluate it by citing suitable
reasons.

26. Iron and steel industry are basic industries which are important for development of an economy. State its
global distribution with details on major iron and steel producing countries.

27. What is subsistence agriculture? Describe two types of intensive subsistence agriculture practiced in the
world.


O
Discuss any five important characteristics of the economic activities of hunting and gathering practiced
in the world.

28. ‘Sea ports are Gateway of International Trade’. Explain the statement and mention the steps taken by
India in development of ports.


O
Name the important ports in India and elaborate their features.

Section D
29. On the political map of India, locate and label any five of the following with appropriate symbols.
(i) The state with lowest level of population density .
(ii) The city of West Bengal having more than 10 million population
(iii) The state leading in the production of cotton (iv) Bailadila - Iron-ore refinery
(v) Mathura - Oil refinery (vi) Marmago - Seaport
(vii) An International airport in Assam

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Page 6 NODIA Sample Paper 1 Geography Class 12

30. On the given political map of the world, the following seven features are shown. Identify any five of
these features and write their correct names on the lines marked near each feature.
(i) An area of commercial livestock rearing (ii) Area of subsistence gathering.
(iii) A major seaport in China. (iv) A major seaport in Pakistan.
(v) Major area of mixed farming. (vi) An inland waterway.
(vii) Major airport in Europe.

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Page 1 NODIA Sample Paper 2 Geography Class 12

Sample Paper 2
GEOGRAPHY (029)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 70
General Instructions:
(i) Question paper is divided into 4 sections A ,B,C and D
(ii) In section A question number 1 to 17 are MCQ type questions.
(iii)In section B question number 18-23 are SA type questions(80-100 words). Question 18 and 19 are
Source based questions.
(iv) In section C question number 24 to 28 are Long Answer based questions (120-150 words).
(v) In section D question number 29 and 30 are Map based questions having 5 sub parts.

Section A
1. Ganga and Brahmaputra basins together constitute how much of the total replenishable groundwater
resources of India?
(a) 31 per cent (b) 46 per cent
(c) 52 per cent (d) 10 per cent

2. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

States Population facts
(a) Ratzel “Human geography is the systematic study of relationship between
human societies and Earth’s surface.”
(b) Ellen C Semple “Human geography is the study of the changing relationship between
the unresting man and the unstable Earth”
(c) Paul vidal de la Blache “Conception resulting from a more synthetic knowledge of the physical
laws governing our Earth and of the relations between the living beings
which inhabit it.”
(d) Mahbub-ul-Haq Concept of Neo-determinism

3. The largest amount of water resources in India are used for which purpose?
(a) Drinking and domestic purposes (b) Generating hydroelectric power
(c) Irrigation (d) Pisciculture

4. A land left follow for five years come under which category of land use?
(a) Culturable wasteland
(b) Net Sown area
(c) Season wasteland
(d) Follow land

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Page 2 NODIA Sample Paper 2 Geography Class 12

5. Which of the following is correctly matched?

States Population facts
(a) Kerala Highest literacy Rate
(b) Goa Highest rural population
(c) Tamil Nadu State with highest urban population
(d) Gujarat Highest density of population

6. Arrange the states as per the decreasing order of their percentage of urban population.
(i) Delhi
(ii) Kerala
(iii) Maharashtra
(iv) Assam
Codes
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (b) (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
(c) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv) (d) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)

7. In which rock system Uranium is found?

(a) Dharwar (b) Gondwana
(c) Cuddapah (d) All of these

8. Which region is famous for the cultivation of Tulip flowers which are exported all over the world?
(a) Denmark (b) India
(c) Netherlands (d) Spain

9. Arrange the following approaches to human geography on the basis of their occurrence.
(a) Regional analysis, Exploration, Areal Differentiation, Spatial organisation
(b) Spatial organisation, Regional analysis, Exploration, Areal Differentiation
(c) Exploration, Regional analysis, Areal Differentiation, Spatial organisation
(d) Exploration, Meal Differentiation, Regional analysis, Spatial organisation

10. Consider the following statements and choose the correct option from the given options.
I. Nomadic herding is practised over vast horizontal as well as vertical distances.
II. Nomads migrate from plains to high altitude pastures during winter season and from high altitude
pastures to plains during summer season.
(a) Only statement I is correct (b) Only statement II is correct
(c) Both statements I and II are correct (d) Both statements I and II are incorrect

11. Who proposed the concept of stop and go determinism in the interaction of human beings with the
environment?
(a) Ellen C Semple (b) Griffith Taylor
(c) Paul Vidal de la Blache (d) Ratzel

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Page 3 NODIA Sample Paper 2 Geography Class 12

12. Assertion : The contribution of agriculture in economy has declined over time.
Reason : People are decreasing in agriculture sector in India.
(a) Only Assertion. is correct
(b) Only Reason is correct
(c) Both assertion and reason are correct. Reason correctly explains assertion
(d) Both are correct but not related to each other

13. Assertion : It is important to make policy measure for water conservation in India.
Reason : The per capita availability of water is declining.
(a) Only assertion is correct
(b) Only reason is correct
(c) Both assertion and reason are correct. Reason is correct explanation of assertion
(d) Both are correct but not related to each other

14. Which approach of human geography was followed during the later colonial period?
(a) Areal differentiation (b) Exploration and description
(c) Regional analysis (d) Spatial organisation

Direction : Read the following graph and answer the question no. 15 to 17.

15. Which state has higher proportion of cultivators as compared to others?

(a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Goa
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Rajasthan

16. In which of the following Union Territory, there is very high percentage of agricultural labourers?
(a) NCT of Delhi (b) Chandigarh
(c) Puducherry (d) Lakshadweep

17. Which state has higher proportion of other workers?

(a) Bihar (b) Goa
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Chhattisgarh

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Page 4 NODIA Sample Paper 2 Geography Class 12

Section B
18. Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Bio-energy refers to energy derived from biological products which includes agricultural residues,
municipal, industrial and other wastes. Bioenergy is a potential source of energy conversion. It can
be converted into electrical energy, heat energy or gas for cooking. It will also process the waste and
garbage and produce energy. This will improve economic life of rural areas in developing countries,
reduce environmental pollution, enhance self-reliance and reduce pressure on fuel wood. One such
project converting municipal waste into energy is Okhla in Delhi.
The challenge of sustainable development requires integration of quest for economic development with
environmental concerns. Traditional methods of resource use result into generating enormous quantity
of waste as well as create other environmental problems. Hence, for sustainable development calls for
the protection of resources for the future generations. There is an urgent need to conserve the resources.
The alternative energy sources like solar power, wind, wave; geothermal energy are inexhaustible
resource. These should be developed to replace the exhaustible resources. In case of metallic minerals,
use of scrap metals will enable recycling of metals. Use of scrap is specially significant in metals like
copper, lead and zinc in which India’s reserves are meagre. Use of substitutes for scarce metals may also
reduce their consumption. Export of strategic and scarce minerals must be reduced, so that the existing
reserve may be used for a longer period.
Question :
(i) What. are the economic implications of bio-energy for rural community?
(ii) Why do we need alternatives to conventional fuel resources such as fossil fuels?
(iii) Why should export of rare and scarce minerals be reduced?

19. Observe the given map and answer the following questions.

(i) Name the railway line shown in the map.

(ii) Name the station marked as ‘A’.
(iii) Name the port located on the coast of Spencer Gulf through which this railway line passes.

20. How is growth different from development in modern society? Explain in brief.

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Page 5 NODIA Sample Paper 2 Geography Class 12

21. Highlight both positive and negative effects of urbanisation.

22. What is Pastoral Nomadism? State its characteristics.

O
“Gathering has little chances to become important at global level.” Analyse the statement by giving three
reasons.

23. Write any three differences between subsistence agriculture and commercial agriculture.


O
What do you understand by market gardening and horticulture? Analyse any three characteristics of this
type of agriculture.

Section C
24. Explain any two methods that can be used to conserve the depleting resources of water in India.

25. How can you say that different marketing centres try to provide services by targeting different markets?

26. “Population in. a region is affected by its geography”. Explain.

O
Explain the economic and social factors that affect the distribution of population in a region. Give
examples.

27. Explain the distribution of any two type of energy resources in India.


O
Non-conventional energy resources will prove more sustainable in the long term. Describe any two non-
conventional energy resources found in India.

28. Elucidate the concept of ‘trading’ in tertiary sector of economy.

Section D
29. On the political map of India, locate and label any five of the following with appropriate symbols.
(i) Hazaribagh copper mine
(ii) A bauxite mine
(iii) A leading producing state of tea
(iv) Largest producer of jute in India
(v) A leading cotton’ producing state
(vi) An international Airport in Thiruvananthapuram.
(vii) An oil refinery

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Page 6 NODIA Sample Paper 2 Geography Class 12

30. On the given political map of the world, the following seven features are shown. Identify any five of
these features and write their correct names on the lines marked near each feature.
(i) An inland waterway
(ii) A major airport
(iii) A major seaport
(iv) Western Terminal Station of Trans-Canadian Railway
(v) An international airport
(vi) Canal
(vii) A major airport in Asia.

******

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Page 1 NODIA Sample Paper 3 Geography Class 12

Sample Paper 3
GEOGRAPHY (029)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 70
General Instructions:
(i) Question paper is divided into 4 sections A ,B,C and D
(ii) In section A question number 1 to 17 are MCQ type questions.
(iii)In section B question number 18-23 are SA type questions(80-100 words). Question 18 and 19 are
Source based questions.
(iv) In section C question number 24 to 28 are Long Answer based questions (120-150 words).
(v) In section D question number 29 and 30 are Map based questions having 5 sub parts.

Section A
1. Among the given options, which is the major component of population change?
(a) Migration (b) Industrialisation
(c) Density of population (d) Urbanisation

2. Which of the following techniques can bring a balance between natural resources and societal needs?
(a) Watershed management (b) Rainwater harvesting
(c) Resource recycling (d) All of the above

3. Arrange the following family of languages according to the proportion of their speakcrs.
(a) Aryan, Xirata, Dravidian, Nishada (b) Aryan, Dra-iidian, Nishada, Kirata
(c) Dravidian, Nishada, Aryan, Kirata (d) Kirata, Nishada, Aryan, Dravidian

4. Which of the following is not true?

(a) One of the causes of pollution is development of industries.
(b) The ozone layer is getting depleted due to the practice of primitive agriculture.
(c) Land is being degraded due to pollution.
(d) Global Warming is being caused by the Greenhouse Effect.

5. Assertion : Water transport are most suitable for trade.

Reason : Water transports are most cost effective for long distance travelling of goods.
(a) Only assertion is correct
(b) Only reason is correct
(c) Both assertion and reason are correct. Reason is correct explanation of assertion
(d) Both are correct, but not related to each other

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Page 2 NODIA Sample Paper 3 Geography Class 12

6. Which among the following is incorrectly matched pair?

Crop Region of Cultivation
(a) Rice West Bengal
(b) Wheat Uttar Pradesh
(c) Oil seeds Himachal Pradesh
(d) Sugarcane Maharashtra

7. Which of the following mineral is found in laterite rocks?

(a) Mica (b) Copper
(c) Bauxite (d) Iron-ore

8. Which among the following is a correctly matched pair?

Population related facts States
(a) State having the highest density of population Bihar
(b) State with highest literacy Tripura
(c) State with highest rural population West Bengal
(d) State with highest urban population Mizoram

9. Which one of the following areas of India has extensive mineral oil deposits?
(a) North-Western Plateau Region (b) South-Western Plateau Region
(c) North-Western Region (d) None of the above

10. Consider the following statements and choose the correct option.
I. In India Ganga, Brahmaputra, Barak and Indus rivers have large catchment area.
II. Due to high precipitation in the catchments areas of these rivers, they have around 60% of total
surface water resources.
(a) Only statement I is correct (b) Only statement II is correct
(c) Both statements are correct (d) Both statements are incorrect

11. Assertion : Contribution of tertiary sector is increasing in world’s GDP.

Reason : People are shifting from agriculture of service sector.
(a) Only assertion is correct
(b) Only reason is correct
(c) Both assertion and reason are correct. Reason is correctly explanation of assertion
(d) Both are correct, but not related to each other

12. Which of the following is not a characteristic of commercial livestock rearing?

(a) It is highly organised and capital intensive.
(b) It is practiced in coastal areas so that the livestock can be easily exported.
(c) Pastures are fenced to regulate grasing.
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Page 3 NODIA Sample Paper 3 Geography Class 12

(d) The number of animals in a pasture are kept according to the pastures capacity.

13. The statement “Human geography is the study of changing relationship between unresting man and
unstable Earth” was given by
(a) Ellen C Semple (b) Ratzel
(c) Paul Vidal de la Blache (d) None of these

14. Arrange the given states in decreasing order of their population density.
(i) Bihar
(ii) Uttar Pradesh
(iii) West Bengal
(iv) Rajasthan
(a) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv) (b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i) (d) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)

Direction : Read the following graph and answer the question no. 15 to 17.

15. National Waterway-3 (NW1) stretches from

(a) Allahabad - Haldia (b) Sadiya - Dhubri
(c) Kottapuram - Kollam (d) Datra - Allahabad

16. In which state is the Kollam-Kottapuram stretch of the West canal located?
(a) Gujarat (b) Maharashtra
(c) Kerala (d) Andhra Pradesh

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Page 4 NODIA Sample Paper 3 Geography Class 12

17. National Waterway-3 in India is also known as

(a) East-West Canal (b) North-South Canal
(c) West Coast Canal (d) East Coast Canal

Section B
18. Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
In agriculture, water is mainly used for irrigation. Irrigation is needed because of spatio-temporal
variability in rainfall in the country. The large tracts of the country are deficient in rainfall and are drought
prone. North-Western India and Deccan plateau constitute such areas. Winter and summer seasons are
more or less dry in most part of the country.
Hence, it is difficult to practise agriculture without assured irrigation during dry seasons. Even in the
areas of ample rainfall like West Bengal and Bihar, breaks in monsoon or its failure creates dry spells
detrimental for agriculture. Water need of certain crops also makes irrigation necessary.
For instance, water requirement of rice, sugarcane, jute, etc is very high which can be met only through
irrigation. Provision of irrigation makes multiple cropping possible.
It has also been found that irrigated lands have higher agricultural productivity than unirrigated . land.
Further, the high yielding varieties of crops need regular moisture supply, which is made possible only
by a developed irrigation systems.
In fact, this is why that Green Revolution strategy of agriculture development in the country has largely
been successful in Punjab, Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh.
(i) What makes irrigation important for a country like India?
(ii) Which states comes under Deccan plateau?
(iii) Which crop is most water-intensive?

19. Observe the given map and answer the following questions.

(i) Which inland waterway is shown in the map?

(ii) This waterway connects industrial areas of which countries of Europe?
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Page 5 NODIA Sample Paper 3 Geography Class 12

(iii) State any two characteristics of this waterway.

20. What do you understand by the term ‘outsourcing’? Why are the IT related services outsourced to the
less developed regions of the world?

21. What is telecommunication? Why is it important?

22. Describe the development of plantation agriculture in the world.

O
What are the specialised activities practised in the industrial regions of Europe and America? Describe
any one.

23. What are the economic and social values of rainwater harvesting?


O
What is water shed management? What are its objectives?

Section C
24. What are the problems faced by our country in development of water resources?

25. What are the three factors responsible for the depletion of water resources? Examine any two legislative
measures for controlling water pollution in India.

26. Explain important types of international trade and also define negative impacts of free trade in the world.


O
“Today international trade has become the basis of world’s economy”. Define the statement with example.

27. Today nuclear energy and its use is expanding. Is it a viable source of energy for India in future,
considering the availability of mineral required.


O
Define any three features of solar, tidal and geothermal energy.

28. What is mixed ‘farming’? Define its major characteristics.

Section D
29. On the given political map of the world, the following seven features are shown. Identify any five of
these features and write their correct names on the lines marked near each feature.
(i) Areas of commercial extensive grain farming (ii) An area of livestock rearing
(iii) An inland waterway (iv) An area of subsistence agriculture
(v) A major airport in Japan (vi) A major seaport

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Page 6 NODIA Sample Paper 3 Geography Class 12

(vii) A major airport in Germany

30. On the political map of India, locate and label any five of the following with appropriate symbols.
(i) The leading producer state of sugarcane (ii) Largest tea producing state
(iii) An iron ore mine in Maharashtra (iv) An international Airport.
(v) Leading producer of wheat (vi) A major sea port in Odisha.
(vii) Bilaspur bauxite mine

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Page 1 NODIA Sample Paper 4 Geography Class 12

Sample Paper 4
GEOGRAPHY (029)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 70
General Instructions:
(i) Question paper is divided into 4 sections A ,B,C and D
(ii) In section A question number 1 to 17 are MCQ type questions.
(iii)In section B question number 18-23 are SA type questions(80-100 words). Question 18 and 19 are
Source based questions.
(iv) In section C question number 24 to 28 are Long Answer based questions (120-150 words).
(v) In section D question number 29 and 30 are Map based questions having 5 sub parts.

Section A
1. Identify the correct order or location from North to South, for the given seaports of India.
(a) Kolkata, Marmagao, Tuticorin, Kochchi (b) Marmagao, Kochchi, Tuticorin, Kolkata
(c) Kolkata, Marmagao, Kochchi, Tuticorin (d) Kolkata, Tuticorin, Marmagao, Kochchi

2. In which among the following Five Year Plans, the Hill Area Development Programme was started?
(a) Fifth Five Year Plan (b) Seventh Five Year Plan
(c) Third Five Year Plan (d) Sixth Five Year Plan

3. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Categories of Density of Population States/UTs
(a) State with highest density Bihar
(b) State with low literacy Assam
(c) State with low density Arunachal Pradesh
(d) UT with low density Chandigarh

4. ‘Landang’ is the name of which of the following agricultural systems?

(a) Plantation agriculture (b) Primitive subsistence agriculture
(c) Mixed farming (d) Dairy farming

5. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Activity Regions
(a) Hunting Cold region
(b) Gathering High Latitude zones
(c) Nomadic herding Mangolia
(d) Transhumance Delhi

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Page 2 NODIA Sample Paper 4 Geography Class 12

6. Consider the following statements and choose the correct option from the given options.
I. Groundwater is the water present beneath Earth’s surface.
II. Total replenishable groundwater resources in India are about 432 cubic km.
(a) Only statement I is correct (b) Both statements I and II are correct
(c) Only statement II is correct (d) Both the statements are incorrect

7. Assertion : Negative balance of trade occurs when the value of imports is more than the value of
exports.
Reason : A country’s economy is largely affected by balance of payment.
Codes
(a) Only assertion is correct
(b) Only reason is correct
(c) Both are correct and reason correctly explains assertion
(d) Both are correct, but reason is not correct explanation of assertion

8. How much groundwater is used in agriculture?

(a) 37% (b) 53%
(c) 92% (d) 85%

9. Which of the following approaches of Human Geography is known as the period of naturalisation of
humans?
(a) Possibilism (b) Environmental determinism
(c) Neo-determinism (d) None of these

10. Assertion : North Atlantic sea route is busiest sea route in the world.
Reason : North Atlantic sea route connect USA with Europe.
(a) Only assertion is correct
(b) Only reason is correct
(c) Both are correct and reason correctly explains assertion
(d) Both are correct, but not related to each other.

11. Which among the following is not a pull factor for migration?
(a) Security of life (b) Employment opportunity
(c) Peace and security (d) Political turmoil

12. Katanga Zambia Copper belt region lies in which of the following continents?
(a) North America (b) Africa
(c) South America (d) Asia

13. Low latitude zone includes which of the following areas where gathering is still practiced?
(a) Amazon Basin (b) Tropical Africa
(c) Northern Fringe of Australia (d) All of the above
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Page 3 NODIA Sample Paper 4 Geography Class 12

14. Arrange the following in correct sequence. Following is the sequence of evolution of approaches of
human geography.
(i) Regional analysis
(ii) Post modernism
(iii) Spatial organisation
(iv) Radical and behavioural school
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(b) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)
(c) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
(d) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)

Direction : Read the following graph and answer the question no. 15 to 17.

15. Which sector alone accounts for most of the surface water utilisation?
(a) Domestic (b) Agriculture
(c) Industrial (d) None of these

16. What percentage of surface water withdrawals is attributed to the industrial sector?
(a) 9% (b) 2%
(c) 89% (d) 91%

17. If the total surface water withdrawals amount to 100 million cubic meters, how much water is withdrawn
by the domestic sector?
(a) 2 million cubic meters
(b) 9 million cubic meters
(c) 89 million cubic meters
(d) 91 million cubic meters

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Page 4 NODIA Sample Paper 4 Geography Class 12

Section B
18. Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Jal Kranti Abhiyan (2015-16)
Water is a recyclable resource but its availability is limited and the gap between supply and demand
will be widening over time. Climate change at the global scale will be creating water stress conditions
in many regions of the world. India also has a unique situation of high population growth and rapid
economic development with high water demand.
The Jal Kranti Abhiyan launched by the Government of India in 2015-16 with an aim to ensure water
security through per capita availability of water in the country. People in different regions of India had
practised the traditional knowledge of water conservation and management to ensure water availability.
The Jal Kranti Abhiyan aims at involving local bodies, NGOs and citizens, at large, in creating awareness
regarding its objectives.
The following activities have been proposed under the Jal Kranti Abhiyan
1. Selection of one water stressed village in each 672 districts of the country to create a ‘Jal Gram’.
2. Identification of model command area of about 1000 hectares in different parts of the country. For
example, U.P, Haryana (North), Karnataka, Telangana and Tamil Nadu (South), Rajasthan, Gujarat
(West), Odisha (East) and Meghalaya (North-East).
3. Abatement of pollution.
• Water conservation and artificial recharge.
• Reducing groundwater pollution.
• Construction of Arsenic-free wells in selected areas of the ‘country.
4. Creating mass awareness through social media, radio, TV, print media, poster and essay writing
competitions in schools. Jal Kranti Abhiyan is designed to provide livelihood and food security
through water security.
Question :
(i) Which phenomenon is the reason behind accute water paucity in the world?
(ii) Mention any two characteristics feature of model command area in India
(iii) Which technology is used by government to achieve objectives of Jal Kranti Abhiyan?

19. Observe the given map and answer the following questions.

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Page 5 NODIA Sample Paper 4 Geography Class 12

(i) Which railway line is shown in the map?

(ii) Name the terminal station along the Atlantic coast.
(iii) This railway is considered economic artery of North America. Why?

20. What are the various causes of land degradation in India? How can we prevent the land from being
degraded?

21. Define the evolution of land transport in the world.

O
Describe the Trans-Canadian railways.

22. Describe any two factors as a result of which tourism industry has grown over the past few decades.

23. Outline the distribution of inter-continental air routes across the world.


O
Discuss the emergence of satellite communication. Also, comment on the status of India’s satellite
development.

Section C
24. “Dairy farming is a highly specialised and advance primary activity”. Justify.

25. What are major characteristics of road transport in India?

26. Coal is a commonly used convention energy source. State its main uses and distribution in India.


O
Nuclear energy is considered as an alternative wind sustainable form .of energy resource. How is nuclear
energy generated and state its distribution in India?

27. Differentiate between Primitive Subsistence Agriculture and Mediterranean Agriculture.

28. Which are the two main ferrous minerals found in India? State any four characteristics of each.


O
State any two uses of manganese. Also discuss about the statewise distribution of manganese in India.

Section D
29. On the given political map of the world, the following seven features are shown. Identify any five of
these features and write their correct names on the lines marked near each feature.
(i) An inland waterway (ii) A major area of nomadic herding
(iii) A major airport in Japan (iv) A major area of subsistence agriculture

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Page 6 NODIA Sample Paper 4 Geography Class 12

(v) A country in South America where commercial livestock rearing is practiced

(vi) A major airport
(vii) A major seaport in Europe.

30. On the political map of India, locate and label any five of the following with appropriate symbols.
(i) The state having the lowest density of population (ii) An oil refinery in Uttar Pradesh
(iii) A coal mine in Jharkhand (iv) An International Airport in Kerala
(v) A manganese mine in Karnataka (vi) Leading producer of cotton
(vii) An International seaport.

******

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Page 1 NODIA Sample Paper 5 Geography Class 12

Sample Paper 5
GEOGRAPHY (029)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 70
General Instructions:
(i) Question paper is divided into 4 sections A ,B,C and D
(ii) In section A question number 1 to 17 are MCQ type questions.
(iii)In section B question number 18-23 are SA type questions(80-100 words). Question 18 and 19 are
Source based questions.
(iv) In section C question number 24 to 28 are Long Answer based questions (120-150 words).
(v) In section D question number 29 and 30 are Map based questions having 5 sub parts.

Section A
1. Which of the following is a conventional energy resource?
(a) Bio-energy (b) Natural gas
(c) Nuclear energy (d) Tidal energy

2. The subject matter of cultural geography has been taken from

(a) Demography (b) Psephology
(c) Economics (d) Anthropology

3. Semi-clustered settlements are found in

(a) Chhattisgarh plateau (b) Gujarat plains
(c) Bundelkhand plateau (d) Himalayas

4. Which of the following is not a drought-prone area identified by the Planning Commission of India in
1967?
(a) Eastern Madhya Pradesh (b) Interior parts of Tamil Nadu
(c) Marathwada region of Maharashtra (d) Rayalseema and Telangana plateaus

5. Which among the following pair is correctly matched?

List I (Features of States) List II (States)
(a) States having very high utilisation of groundwater Punjab
(b) States having moderate utilisation of groundwater Uttar Pradesh
(c) States having low utilisation of groundwater Haryana
(d) State having Lagoon Rajasthan

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Page 2 NODIA Sample Paper 5 Geography Class 12

6. Which among the following pair is incorrectly matched?

List-I (Cities) List-II (Basis of Development)
(a) Prayagraj (Allahabad) On religious and cultural basis
(b) Lucknow Based on remnants of ancient city
(c) Kolkata Based on culture
(d) Mumbai Commercial port

7. Assertion : Areas which were earlier thinly populated are now have moderate to high concentration of
population.
Reason : Development of irrigation facilities, availability of minerals and energy resources and
development of transport network lead to population increase.
(a) Only assertion is correct
(b) Only reason is correct
(c) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason correctly explains assertion
(d) Both are correct, but not related to each other

8. Arrange the following manganese sites from North to South.

(i) Balaghat
(ii) Sundergarh
(iii) Goa
(iv) Shivamoga
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (b) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(c) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv) (d) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)

9. The state of interaction between humans and environment where humans fear mother nature is known as
(a) Environmental determinism (b) Possibilism
(c) Neo-determinism (d) Environmentalism

10. Arrange the following according to their % of groundwater utilisation

(a) Agriculture, Industries, Domestic household
(b) Domestic household, Agriculture, Industries
(c) Industries, Agriculture, Domestic household
(d) Agriculture, Domestic household, Industries

11. Consider and evaluate the following statements and choose the correct option from the given options.
I. Assessment, efficient use and conservation of water are basic requirements for a nation.
II. These are important to ensure sustainable development of a country.
(a) Only statement I is correct
(b) Both statements are correct and statement II correctly explains statement I
(c) Only statement II is correct
(d) Both the statements are incorrect

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Page 3 NODIA Sample Paper 5 Geography Class 12

12. Assertion : Road quality differs greatly between developed and developing countries.
Reason : Construction and maintenance of roads, required large investment.
Codes
(a) Only assertion is correct
(b) Only reason is correct
(c) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason correctly explains assertion
(d) Both are correct, but not related to each other

13. Which one of the following Union Territories has the highest rate of literacy according to the Census of
2011?
(a) Chandigarh (b) NCT of Delhi
(c) Lakshadweep (d) Puducherry

14. Which of the following towns is not a religious or cultural town?

(a) Haridwar (b) Pushkar
(c) Shimla (d) Ujjain

Direction : Read the following graph and answer the question no. 15 to 17.

15. The difference between exports and import of a country is known as

(a) Balance of Trade
(b) Balance of Payment
(c) Composition of Trade
(d) Terms of Trade

16. In which year both export and import started declining?

(a) 2013-14 (b) 2014-15
(c) 2015-16 (d) 2012-13

17. Which year represent the maximum difference between import and export?
(a) 2012-13 (b) 2013-14
(c) 2014-15 (d) 2015-16
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Page 4 NODIA Sample Paper 5 Geography Class 12

Section B
18. Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
India is endowed with fairly abundant resources of iron ore. It has the largest reserve of iron ore in Asia.
The two main types of ore found in our country are haematite and magnetite. It has great demand in
international market due to its superior quality. The iron ore mines occur in close proximity to the coal
fields in the North-Eastern plateau region of the country which adds to their advantage. About 95 per
cent of total reserves of iron ore is located in the States of Odisha, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka,
Goa, Tel angana, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu. In. Odisha, iron ore occurs in a series of hill ranges
in Sundergarh, Mayurbhanj and Jhar. The important mines are Gurumahisani , Sulaipet, Badampahar
(Mayurbhaj), Kiruburu (Kendujhar) and Bonai (Sundergarh). Similar hill ranges, Jharkhand has some
of the oldest iron ore mines and most of the iron and steel plants are located around them. Most of the
important mines such as Noam undi and Gua are located in Poorbi and Pashchimi Singhbhum districts.
This belt further extends to Durg, Dantewara and Bailadila. Dalli, and Rajhara in Durg are the important
mines of iron ore in the country. In Karnataka, iron ore deposits occur in Sandur-Hospet area of Ballari
district, Baba Budan hills and Kudremukh in Chikkamagaluru district and parts of Shivamogga.,
Chitradurg and Tumakuru districts. The districts of Chandrapur; Bhandara and Ratnagiri in Maharashtra,
Karimnagar and Warangal district of Telangana, Kurnool, Cuddapah and Anantapur districts of Andhra
Pradesh, Salem and Nilgiris districts of Tamil Nadu are other iron mining regions. Goa has also emerged
as an important producer of iron ore.
Questions:
(i) Which areas are source of iron ore mineral?
(ii) Which mineral is found in Dharwar rocks?
(iii) Where is Baba Budan hills are located?

19. Observe the given map of the Suez Canal and answer the following questions.

(i) From which country is the given canal passing?

(ii) Which sea is connected by this canal.
(iii) Why is this canal considered a Gateway of Europe to the Indian Ocean?
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Page 5 NODIA Sample Paper 5 Geography Class 12

20. Discuss how growth in population influence the economic development.

21. How is the service sector important for the economy of a country?
O
“Transport and communication services are important for a country’s’development”. Describe.

22. “There is a direct dependence of human beings on nature for resources which sustain them.” Justify this
statement by giving any three points in the light of environmental determinism.

23. Satellites and computers have brought revolutionary changes in the present life of the people. Elaborate
the statement with three suitable examples.
O
Evaluate the role and importance of roads in the economic development of India.

Section C
24. How does countries are classified in different categories under the HDI?

25. What are the merits and demerits of road transport in the world?

26. Explain how water quality has deteriorated in India over the past few decades.
O
The problem of water pollution has become peculiar in India. What steps can be taken to improve the
deteriorating quality of water?

27. What is noise pollution? Describe major sources and consequences of noise pollution.
O
The disposal of urban waste has become a serious concern for the local authorities. Analyse the statement
with suitable examples.

28. What is commercial livestock rearing? What are its major characteristics?

Section D
29. On the given political map of the world, the following seven features are shown. Identify any five of
these features and write their correct names on the lines marked near each feature.
(i) Identify the Sea in which Volga River drain and this river provide waterway upto 11,200 km.
(ii) Identify the city where the headquarter of EU is located.
(iii) Identify the region that connect interior part of USA through Mississippi-Ohio waterway.
(iv) An important Iron and steel centre in Japan.
(v) Hub for technology companies in USA.

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Page 6 NODIA Sample Paper 5 Geography Class 12

(vi) Western terminal of Trans-Siberian railway.

(vii) An important Iron and steel centre in USA.

30. On the political map of India, locate and label any five of the following with appropriate symbols.
(i) State with highest population density (ii) A seaport in West Bengal
(iii) A major seaport (iv) The leading state for wheat production
(v) Khetri copper mine (vi) An oil refinery in Gujarat
(vii) A coal mine in Tamil Nadu

******

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Page 1 NODIA Sample Paper 6 Geography Class 12

Sample Paper 6
GEOGRAPHY (029)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 70
General Instructions:
(i) Question paper is divided into 4 sections A ,B,C and D
(ii) In section A question number 1 to 17 are MCQ type questions.
(iii)In section B question number 18-23 are SA type questions(80-100 words). Question 18 and 19 are
Source based questions.
(iv) In section C question number 24 to 28 are Long Answer based questions (120-150 words).
(v) In section D question number 29 and 30 are Map based questions having 5 sub parts.

Section A
1. Which of the following rivers has the highest replenishable groundwater resource in India ?
(a) Indus (b) Brahmaputra
(c) Ganga (d) Godavari

2. Which of the following parts of a river have the best quality water?
(a) The delta part (b) The part in the mountains
(c) The plains part (d) The part in the valleys

3. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

Rivers Polluted Place
(a) Yamuna Lucknow
(b) Kali Muzaffarnagar
(c) Ganga Kanpur
(d) Sabarmati Gandhinagar

4. Identify the correct order of location from West to East, for the given headquarters of railway zones.
(a) Mumbai, New Delhi, Allahabad, Kolkata (b) New Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Allahabad
(c) New Delhi, Mumbai, Allahabad, Kolkata (d) Mumbai, Allahabad, New Delhi, Kolkata

5. Gathering is practiced in the______basin.

(a) Amazon (b) Ganga
(c) Hwang Ho (d) Nile

6. Which of the following mineral is used in smelting of iron-ore?

(a) Mica (b) Manganese
(c) Copper (d) Bauxite
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Page 2 NODIA Sample Paper 6 Geography Class 12

7. Arrange the following regions given below, in order of deceasing density of their population.
(i) North Amrica
(ii) Asia
(iii) Europe
(iv) Africa
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(b) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(c) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)
(d) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)

8. Assertion : Barter system promoted trade and was easy to manage.

Reason : In primitive societies, it was easy to found someone who need same commodities as one
needed to exchange.
(a) Only assertion is correct
(b) Only reason is correct
(c) Both assertion and reason are correct. Reason is correct explanation of assertion
(d) Both assertion and reason are incorrect

9. Which of the following schools of thought attributed the current social problems to development of
capitalism?
(a) Radical School
(b) Behavioural School
(c) Welfare School
(d) Humanistic School

10. Which of the following is not a sub-field of social geography?

(a) Military geography
(b) Behavioural geography
(c) Gender geography
(d) Geography of leisure

11. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

Category of Density of Population States/UTs
(a) State with highest density West Bengal
(b) State with low density Uttar Pradesh
(c) State with moderate density Assam
(d) UT with highest density Daman and Diu

12. Who gave the term ‘conurbation’?

(a) Jean Gottman (b) Patrick Geddes
(c) Walter Griffin (d) Lewis Mumford

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Page 3 NODIA Sample Paper 6 Geography Class 12

13. Assertion : Railways are most suited for large volume bulky materials over short distance.
Reason : Railway networks are well developed and can reach hinterlands.
(a) Only assertion is correct
(b) Only reason is correct
(c) Both assertion and reason are correct. Reason is correct explanation of assertion
(d) Both are correct but not related to each other

14. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer.
I. Rearing is today practiced at the subsistence or commercial levels.
II. Animal rearing depends upon the geographical factors and levels of technological development.
(a) Only statement I is correct
(b) Only statement II is correct
(c) Both the statements are correct and statement II correctly explains statement I
(d) Both the statements are incorrect

Direction : Read the following data and answer the question no. 15 to 17.
Direction of India’s Import trade
Region Imports
2010-11 2016-17
Europe 3323857 403972
Africa 118612 193327
North America 100602 195332
Latin America 64576 115762
Asia and ASEAN 1029881 1544520

15. Which region contributes to largest share in India’s imports?

(a) Europe
(b) Africa
(c) Asia and ASEAN
(d) North America

16. The largest proportion of India’s exports and imports are carried out by
(a) land routes
(b) sea routes
(c) air routes
(d) Both (b) and (c)

17. Which among the following measures can help in increasing India’s international trade?
(a) Import liberalisation (b) Licencing
(c) Increasing import duties (d) Strict patent laws

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Page 4 NODIA Sample Paper 6 Geography Class 12

Section B
18. Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Density of population, is expressed as number of persons per unit area. It helps in getting a better
understanding of the spatial distribution of population in relation to land. The density of population in
India (2011) is 382 persons per sq km. There has been a steady increase of more than 200 persons per
sq km over the last 50 years as the density of population increased from 117 persons/sq km in 1951
to 382 persons/sq km in 2011. The data of census 2011 give an idea of spatial variation of population
densities in the country which ranges from as low as 17 persons per sq km in Arunachal Pradesh to
11,297 persons in the National Capital Territory of Delhi. Among the Northern Indian States, Bihar
(1102), West Bengal (1029) and Uttar Pradesh (828) have higher densities, while Kerala (859) and Tamil
Nadu (555) have higher densities among the peninsular Indian states. States like Assam, Gujarat, Andhra
Pradesh, Haryana, Jharkhand, Odisha have moderate densities. The hill states of the Himalayan region
and North-Eastern states of India (excluding Assam) have relatively low densities while the Union
Territories (excluding Andaman and Nicobar islands) have very high densities of a population.
Question :
(i) What is the defining feature of density of population of a region?)
(ii) Which North-Eastern state does not comes under category of low population density?
(iii) Which state among the Southern states is the most densely populated?

19. Observe the given map and answer the following questions.

(i) What is the source of origin of this canal?

(ii) What is the economic significance of this canal for the command area?
(iii) Why is the Eastern area of canal under lift irrigation?

20. How stage of economic development and foreign investment are the basis of International Trade?

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Page 5 NODIA Sample Paper 6 Geography Class 12

O
What does direction of foreign trade mean?

21. Define mining and its various types.

22. Define the nature of human geography.

23. What are reasons behind rise of service sector in the world?
O
Describe tourism and its place in tertiary sector.
Section C
24. What are major characteristics of National Highways in India?

25. What are some of the measure that can be used to reduce air pollution?

26. What is mixed farming? Where is it practiced in the world? Give four characteristics of mixed farming.

27. What are the major steps taken by Government of India to solve the problem of adolescence?
O
Discuss the population distribution of India.

28. What are limitations and advantages of air transport?

O
What is GPS and what are its various uses?

Section D
29. On the political map of India, locate and label any five of the following with appropriate symbols.
(i) The state with the lowest level of urbanisation
(ii) A seaport in West Bengal
(iii) A city in South India having 10 million population
(iv) The leading state for wheat production
(v) Khetri copper mine
(vi) An oil refinery in Gujarat
(vii) A coal mine in Tamil Nadu

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Page 6 NODIA Sample Paper 6 Geography Class 12

30. On the given political map of the world, the following seven features are shown. Identify any five of
these features and write their correct names on the lines marked near each feature.
(i) Areas of commercial extensive grain farming (ii) An area of livestock rearing
(iii) Largest country in Oceania (iv) An area of subsistence agriculture
(v) A major airport (vi) A major seaport
(vii) A major airport

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Page 1 NODIA Sample Paper 7 Geography Class 12

Sample Paper 7
GEOGRAPHY (029)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 70
General Instructions:
(i) Question paper is divided into 4 sections A, B, C and D
(ii) In section A question number 1 to 17 are MCQ type questions.
(iii)In section B question number 18-23 are SA type questions (80-100 words). Question 18 and 19 are
Source based questions.
(iv) In section C question number 24 to 28 are Long Answer based questions (120-150 words).
(v) In section D question number 29 and 30 are Map based questions having 5 sub parts.

Section A
1. Which of the following is not a conventional source of energy?
(a) Petroleum (b) Geo-thermal energy
(c) Coal (d) Nuclear energy minerals

2. The colonial period provided impetus to further explorations in order to ______ and to obtain inventoried
information.
(a) study human societies (b) access the resources of the regions
(c) conduct geographical survey (d) explore new lands

3. The human development index measures______.

(a) poverty and resource distribution (b) attainments in human development
(c) shortfall in human development (d) technological and industrial developments

4. Which of the following statement(s) given below is/are correct?

I. Water scarcity is the practice of using water efficiently to reduce unnecessary usage or wastage of
water.
II. Water conservation is the practice of using water efficiently to reduce unnecessary usage or wastage
of water.
(a) Only I (b) Both I and II
(c) Only II (d) None of these

5. Arrange the following primary activities starting from the most primitive to the most modern.
(i) Nomadic herding
(ii) Commercial livestock rearing
(iii) Domestication of animals
(iv) Hunting and gathering
Choose the correct option:

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Page 2 NODIA Sample Paper 7 Geography Class 12

(a) (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)

(b) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)
(c) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
(d) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii)

6. Which of the following pairs is matched correctly regarding iron ore centers and their correct location?
(a) Creusot Le Russia
(b) Duisburg Germany
(c) Shanghai Japan
(d) Appalachian region United Kingdom

7. Which one of the following is not an objective of Namami Gange Programme?

(a) Monitoring of industrial effluents
(b) The Ganga aarti
(c) Cleaning of the river surface
(d) Developing sewerage treatment systems in towns

8. Radio club of Bombay, Indian Broadcasting System and All India Radio are the examples of which of
the following communication system?
(a) Television communication (b) Mass communication
(c) Satellite communication (d) Personal communication

9. Which one of the following is the correct pair of Railway Zone and its headquarters?
(a) East Coast-Hajipur
(b) East Central-Kolkata
(c) Eastern-Bhubaneswar
(d) Central-Mumbai CST

10. Which of the following is not a characteristic of minerals?

(a) Minerals are unevenly distributed over space.
(b) All minerals are exhaustible over time.
(c) All minerals are inorganic in origin.
(d) There is an inverse relationship in quality and quantity of minerals.

11. Which of the following columns is not matched correctly?

Short Form Expanded Form
(a) CNP Common National Programmes
(b) AIR All India Radio
(c) DD Doordarshan
(d) INSAT-IA National Television Forum

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Page 3 NODIA Sample Paper 7 Geography Class 12

12. What is the real wealth of a country?

(a) Its climate
(b) Its natural resources
(c) Its people
(d) Its flora and fauna

13. Assertion (A): Human beings interact with their physical environment with the help of technology.
Reason (R): Human beings were able to develop technology after they developed a better understanding
of natural laws.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is false but reason is true.
(d) Assertion is true but reason is false.

14. Assertion (A): The urban centres located near the trade route experience rapid development.
Reason (R): The location of a specific region is responsible for the development.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is false but reason is true.
(d) Assertion is true but reason is false.

Direction : Read the following graph and answer the question no. 15 to 17.

15. Which of these categories has recorded an increase in area from 1950-2015?
(a) Barren land (b) Culturable land
(c) Net sown area (d) Fallow other than current fallow
The area under wasteland has declined due to which of the following reasons?
(a) Due to increase in forests (b) Due to conversion of land for industries
(c) Due to expansion of agriculture (d) All of the above

16. Which of the following categories of land use has recorded the maximum difference in his change from
1950-61 to 2014-15?
(a) Area under tree crops and groves (b) Barren and unculturable wasteland
(c) Current fallow (d) Forest
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Page 4 NODIA Sample Paper 7 Geography Class 12

Section B
17. Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
India has traditionally been an agrarian economy and about two-third of its population have been
dependent on agriculture. Hence, development of irrigation to increase agricultural production has been
assigned a very high priority in the Five Year Plans and multipurpose river valleys projects like the
Bhakra-Nangal, Hirakud, Damodar Valley, Nagarjuna Sagar, Indira Gandhi Canal Project, etc., have
been taken up.
In fact, India’s water demand at present is dominated by irrigational needs. Agriculture accounts for
most of the surface and groundwater utilisation, it accounts for 89 per cent of the surface water and 92
per cent of the groundwater utilisation. While the share of industrial sector is limited to 2 per cent of the
surface water utilisation and 5 per cent of the groundwater, the share of domestic sector is higher (9 per
cent) in surface water utilisation as compared to groundwater. The share of agricultural sector in total
water utilisation is much higher than other sectors. However, in future with development, the shares of
industrial and domestic sectors in the country are likely to increase.
Question:
(i) Majority of Indian population is engaged in which type of activity?
(ii) What is the need of irrigation facilities in India ?
(iii) What are important ways to conserve groundwater?

18. Observe the given map and answer the following questions.

(i) Which railway line is, shown on the map?

(ii) Name the Northern and Southern most point of this railway line.
(iii) Why this railway line is considered life line of Russia?

19. “Tourism is a highly labour intensive activity of a unique kind in the world.” Evaluate your answer with
examples.

20. What are the various sources of noise pollution in urban areas?
O
“Urban solid waste is a nuisance for metropolitan cities.” Explain briefly.

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Page 5 NODIA Sample Paper 7 Geography Class 12

21. The assessment, efficient use and conservation of water become necessary to water development. Discuss
it in Indian perspective.

22. Why is conservation of minerals essential in India? How can we conserve them? Explain it with the help
of two examples.
O
Describe three broad belts of minerals in India.

Section C
23. What are the major pairs of livestock rearing and how is it becoming of specialised activity?

24. Why there is no uniformity in the distribution of roads in India?

25. State the global distribution of railways in the continents of the world.

26. What do you mean by Quinary activities? Discuss the new trends in Quinary services.
O
What is medical tourism? Explain the scope of medical services in India for overseas patients. How does
outsourcing of medical tests and data interpretation help in this?

27. What are the uses of manganese? How are they distributed in different states of India?
O
Define the production, distribution and use of petroleum in India.

Section D
28. On the political map of India, locate and label any five of the following with appropriate symbols.
(i) The state with the highest level of urbanisation
(ii) An International airport
(iii) The leading producer state of rice in Eastern India
(iv) Shimoga Manganese mine
(v) Barauni oil refinery
(vi) A city in Karnataka with more than 10 million population
(vii) A coal mine in West Bengal

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Page 6 NODIA Sample Paper 7 Geography Class 12

29. On the given political map of the world, the following seven features are shown. Identify any five of
these features and write their correct names on the lines as marked near each feature.
(i) The largest country in South America (ii) A terminal station of trans-continental railway
(iii) An area of nomadic herding (iv) An area of extensive commercial grain farming
(v) An major airport (vi) A major seaport
(vii) An inland waterway

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Page 1 NODIA Sample Paper 8 Geography Class 12

Sample Paper 8
GEOGRAPHY (029)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 70
General Instructions:
(i) Question paper is divided into 4 sections A, B, C and D
(ii) In section A question number 1 to 17 are MCQ type questions.
(iii)In section B question number 18-23 are SA type questions (80-100 words). Question 18 and 19 are
Source based questions.
(iv) In section C question number 24 to 28 are Long Answer based questions (120-150 words).
(v) In section D question number 29 and 30 are Map based questions having 5 sub parts.

Section A
1. In human development, empowerment means to have the power to_______.
(a) purchase goods (b) obtain welfare benefits
(c) make choices (d) exercise one’s veto power

2. The total utilisable water resource of India is:

(a) 1422 cubic km (b) 1322 cubic km
(c) 1222 cubic km (d) 1122 cubic km

3. Arrange the sequence of the steps involved in shaft mining.

(i) The minerals then go through different stages of processing and refining.
(ii) Minerals are extracted and transported to the surface through these passages using specially
designed lifts.
(iii) When the ore lies deep below the surface, underground mining/shaft method is used.
(iv) Vertical shafts have to be sunk, from where underground galleries radiate to reach the minerals.
Choose the correct option:
(a) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i) (b) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)
(c) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii) (d) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)

4. Considered the following statements and choose the correct answer from the given options:
1. Human beings have evolved different methods of communication over times.
2. Initially, the means of communication were also the means of transportation.
Options :
(a) Only 2 is correct.
(b) Only 1 is correct.
(c) Both the statements are incorrect.
(d) Both the statements are correct and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.

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Page 2 NODIA Sample Paper 8 Geography Class 12

5. Towns are classified based on evolution as:

(a) Modern towns (b) Medieval towns
(c) Ancient towns (d) All of the above

6. Which one of the following is the main factor of the emergence of ports as gateways of international
trade?
(a) After the coming of the Mughals. (b) After independence.
(c) Since ancient times. (d) After the coming of the European traders.

7. Identify the correctly matched pair:

List of Minerals Mining Area
(a) Mica Katni (M.P)
(b) Bauxite Nellore (Andhra Pradesh)
(c) Iron core Balaghat (M.P)
(d) Copper Mayurbhaj (Odisha)

8. Identify the Push and Pull factors respectively.

(a) Natural disasters and Pleasant climate
(b) Better job opportunities and Stability
(c) Unemployment and Epidemics
(d) Unpleasant climate and Better living conditions

9. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

Year of Establishment
(a) Bhabha Atomic Research Center 1967
(b) Oil and Natural Gas commission 1958
(c) Atomic Energy Commission 1948
(d) Atomic Energy Institute at Trombay 1954

10. Which authority in case of the major ports decides the policy and plays regulatory functions?
(a) Local Authority (b) Central Authority
(c) Port Authority (d) State Authority

11. Medical tourism brings abundant benefits to developing countries like______.

(a) Pakistan, Indonesia and India
(b) India, Bangladesh, Myarunar
(c) China, Sri Lanka and Singapore
(d) India, Thailand, Singapore and Malaysia

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Page 3 NODIA Sample Paper 8 Geography Class 12

12. Assertion (A): Human geography attempts to explain the relationship between all elements of human
life and the space they occur over.
Reason (R): The process of adaptation, adjustment with and modification of the environment started
with the appearance of human beings over the surface of the earth in different ecological niches.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is false but reason is true.
(d) Assertion is true but reason is false.

13. Assertion (A): Environmental pollution results from the lease of substances and energy from waste
products of human activities.
Reason (R): There are many types of pollution.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is false but reason is true.
(d) Assertion is true but reason is false.

14. Why is the dichotomy between physical and human not a valid one?
(a) Humans explore and create new resources.
(b) Humans are destroying the environment in the name of development.
(c) Nature and humans are inseparable elements.
(d) The biosphere has elements of the other three domains.

Direction : Read the following graph and answer the question no. 15 to 17.

15. What is the combined percentage of ground water withdrawals by the industrial and domestic sectors?
(a) 3.6% (b) 5%
(c) 8% (d) 92%

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Page 4 NODIA Sample Paper 8 Geography Class 12

16. What sector has the lowest contribution to ground water withdrawals?
(a) Agriculture (b) Industrial
(c) Domestic (d) None of these

17. Which sector has the highest contribution to ground water withdrawals?
(a) Agriculture (b) Domestic
(c) Industrial (d) None of these

Section B
18. Read the given passage carefully and answer the following questions.
The idea of human development is supported by the concepts of equity, sustain ability, productivity
and empowerment. Equity refers to making equal access to opportunities available to everybody. The
opportunities available to people must be equal irrespective of their gender, race, income and in the
Indian case, caste. Yet this is very often not the case and happens in almost every society. In India, a
large number of women’s and persons belonging to socially and economically backward groups drop
out of school.
Sustainability means continuity in the availability of opportunities. To have sustainable human
development, each generation must have the same-opportunities. All environmental, financial and
human resources must be used keeping in mind the future. Misuse of any of these resources will lead to
fewer opportunities for future generations.
Productivity means human labour productivity or productivity in terms of human work. Such productivity
must be constantly enriched by building capabilities in people. Ultimately, it is people who are the real
wealth of nations.
Empowerment means to have the power to make choices. Such power comes from increasing freedom
and capability. Good governance and people-oriented policies are required to empower people. The
empowerment of socially and economically disadvantaged groups is of special importance.
Question :
(i) According to the passage, what is the real wealth of a county?
(ii) What can lead to the empowerment of people?
(iii) After reading this passage, what do you understood by sustainable development?

19. Observe the given figure and answer the following questions.

(i) Which of the mining technique is cheapest?

(ii) Which type of mining is used for extraction of ore deep inside the surface?
(iii) Which of the methods given in picture is more prove to accidents ?
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Page 5 NODIA Sample Paper 8 Geography Class 12

20. Define ‘Bharat Mala Scheme’.

21. Describe any four important characteristics of horticulture and market gardening practiced in the world.
O
Differentiate between possibilism and determinism.

22. What are the major problems associated with water in India?
O
Describe major features of India’s National Water Policy, 2002?

23. Neo-determinism presents an alternative approach between the two streams of environmental determinism
and possibilism. Explain how does it show that human being can live in harmony with their environment.

Section C
24. “Trans-Canadian railway line is economic artery of Canada.” Discuss.

25. What are non-conventional sources of energy? Discuss there availability and potential in India.

26. Where is intensive subsistence agriculture practised in the world? What are its two types? Describe any
two characteristics of each type.
O
Explain any five features of nomadic herding in the world.

27. How is the difference in natural resources is the basis of international trade?
O
Explain the factor that forms the basis of international trade.

28. What are the sources of water pollution in India? Describe five such sources.

Section D
29. On the political map of India, locate and label any five of the following with appropriate symbols.
(i) The state with the lowest level of population density
(ii) The leading producer state of coffee in India
(iii) Hazaribagh copper mine
(iv) A city with 10 million population
(v) A manganese mine in Karnataka
(vi) An oil refinery in Uttar Pradesh
(vii) A major seaport

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Page 6 NODIA Sample Paper 8 Geography Class 12

30. On the given political map of the world, the following seven features are shown. Identify any five of
these features and write their correct names on the lines marked near each feature.
(i) The largest country in Europe in terms of area (ii) A major area of nomadic herding
(iii) A major airport in Japan (iv) A major area of subsistence agriculture
(v) A country in South America where commercial livestock rearing is practiced
(vi) A major airport` (vii) A major seaport in Europe

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Page 1 NODIA Sample Paper 9 Geography Class 12

Sample Paper 9
GEOGRAPHY (029)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 70
General Instructions:
(i) Question paper is divided into 4 sections A, B, C and D
(ii) In section A question number 1 to 17 are MCQ type questions.
(iii)In section B question number 18-23 are SA type questions (80-100 words). Question 18 and 19 are
Source based questions.
(iv) In section C question number 24 to 28 are Long Answer based questions (120-150 words).
(v) In section D question number 29 and 30 are Map based questions having 5 sub parts.

Section A
1. Which one of the following is a source of noise pollution at harbour?
(a) Heavy traffic at harbour
(b) Noise of aircraft etc., passing over harbour
(c) Loading and unloading activities being carried at harbour
(d) All of the above

2. Arrange the steps followed in ‘slash and burn agriculture’.

(i) The farmers move to a new patch of land and clear it by slashing and burning.
(ii) Vegetation is cut, cleared and set on fire.
(iii) Ashes add to soil fertility and the cleared patch of land is cultivated.
(iv) After harvesting the crop for a few years, the field is abandoned.
Choose the correct option:
(a) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i) (b) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
(c) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii) (d) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)

3. Which one of the following is not a type of wasteland?

(a) Oceans (b) Marshy areas
(c) Barren rocky areas (d) Gullies

4. Which one of the following pairs is not matched correctly regarding land degradation?
Activities Agents of degradation
(a) Land with scrub Both natural and human Agents
(b) Degraded forests Natural Agents
(c) Glaciers Natural Agent
(d) Industrial Wastelands Human Agents

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Page 2 NODIA Sample Paper 9 Geography Class 12

5. Which one of the following is not included in Bharatmala, which is a proposed umbrella scheme for the
development of roads and highways?
(a) State Roads (b) Longest road of the world
(c) District headquarter connectivity (d) Backward areas, religious and tourist places

6. Basis of International Trade can be categorized into:

(a) Difference in national resources, Population factors, Stage of economic development
(b) Difference in national resources, National boundary, Stage of economic development
(c) National boundary, Population factors, Stage of economic development
(d) Difference in national resources, Population factors, National boundary

7. Which of the following is correctly matched?

Port Location
(a) Ennore kerala
(b) Kandla port Gulf of Kuchchh
(c) Marmagao Port Karnataka
(d) Jawarharlal Nehru port Goa

8. Intensive subsistence agriculture is largely found in______regions of monsoon Asia.

(a) unevenly populated (b) densely populated
(c) thinly populated (d) sparsely populated

9. Which objective of watershed management given below is correct?

I. To create a balance among natural elements as well as in society.
II. To enable the villagers to conserve water for various uses such as drinking, irrigation, fisheries and
afforestation.
(a) Only I (b) Both I and II
(c) Only II (d) None of the above

10. Which of the following is a person who works for atleast 183 days (or six months) in a year?
(a) Marginal worker (b) Cultivator
(c) Agricultural labourer (d) Main worker

11. Which of the following is not an approach in human geography?

(a) Exploration and description (b) Spatial organisation
(c) Quantitative revolution (d) Areal differentiation

12. Assured and speedy transportation, along with efficient communication, promote______.
(a) unity among scattered people in urban areas
(b) cooperation among scattered people in rural areas
(c) cooperation and unity among scattered people

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Page 3 NODIA Sample Paper 9 Geography Class 12

(d) socialisation among scattered people

13. Assertion (A): The beginning of human geography did not start with the interaction of environment
and human beings.
Reason (R): The concerns of human geography have a long temporal though the approaches to articulate
them have changed over time.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is false but reason is true.
(d) Assertion is true but reason is false.

14. Assertion (A): Water transport is the cheapest means of transport.

Reason (R): It is a fuel efficient and eco-friendly mode of transport.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is false but reason is true.
(d) Assertion is true but reason is false.

Direction : Read the following graph and answer the question no. 15 to 17.

15. What does the map depicts?

(a) Area of nomadic herding (b) Area of commercial livestock rearing
(c) Area of subsistence gathering (d) Area of mixed farming

16. In Arctic, which of the following is the most important livestock?

(a) Yak
(b) Cattle
(c) Reindeer
(d) llamas

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Page 4 NODIA Sample Paper 9 Geography Class 12

17. Which of the following is the reason for decreasing in the number of pastoral nomads and the area
operated by them?
(a) Imposition of political boundries (b) New settlement plans
(c) Industrial development (d) Both (a) and (b)

Section B
18. Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Nuclear energy has emerged as a viable source in recent times. Important minerals used for the
generation of nuclear energy are uranium and thorium. Uranium deposits occur in the Dharwar rocks.
Geographically, uranium ores are known to occur in several locations along the Singbhum Copper belt.
It is also found in Udaipur, Alwar and Jhunjhunu districts of Rajasthan, Durg district of Chhattisgarh,
Bhandara district of Maharashtra and Kullu district of Himachal Pradesh. Thorium is mainly obtained
from monazite and ilmenite in the beach sands along the coast of Kerala and Tamil Nadu. World’s richest
monazite deposits occur in Palakkad and Kollam districts of Kerala, near Vishakhapatnam in Andhra
Pradesh and Mahanadi river delta in Odisha.
Atomic Energy Commission was established in 1948, progress could be made only after the establishment
of the Atomic Energy Institute at Trombay in 1954 which was renamed as the Bhabha Atomic Research
Centre in 1967. The important nuclear power projects are Tarapur. (Maharashtra), Rawatbhata near
Kota (Rajasthan), Kalpakkam (Tamil Nadu), Narora (Uttar Pradesh), Kaiga (Karnataka) and Kakrapar
(Gujarat).
When the magma from the interior of Earth, comes out on the surface, tremendous heat is released. This
heat energy can successfully be tapped and converted to electrical energy. Apart from this, the hot water
that gushes out through the geyser wells is also used in the generation of thermal energy. It is popularly
known as geothermal energy.
This energy is now considered to be one of the key energy sources which can be developed as an
alternate source. The hot springs and geysers are being used since Medieval period.
In India, a geothermal energy plant has been commissioned at Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh.
Question :
(i) Thorium is obtained from which mineral?
(ii) Which source of energy is renewable in nature?
(iii) In which region, the deposits of copper were found?

19. Observe the given graph and answer the following questions.

(i) Which category of land has recorded maximum increase in area from 1950 to 2015?
(ii) Which category of land has recorded maximum decline in area from 1950 to 2015?
(iii) What could be reason behind decrease in area and wasteland ?
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Page 5 NODIA Sample Paper 9 Geography Class 12

20. What are the major problems associated with road transport in the world?

21. What is possibilism? Describe with examples.

22. Discuss major components of population growth in India and its features.
O
What were the reason behind slow growth rate of population at phase IV in India?

23. What is slash and burn agriculture? Write any three harmful effects of this type of agriculture.
O
“Human beings have loosened the shackles of nature and nature has been humanised”. Explain.

Section C
24. Why does 90% of world population lives in about 10% of its total area, whereas 10% population reside
in 90% of land area?

25. Discuss two major ferrous minerals found in India and describe their major characteristics.
O
How is non-conventional source of energy a viable alternative for India’s energy needs?

26. What are the major characteristics of subsistence agriculture?

27. What is the reason for inter-state water disputes? Give some examples of such disputes.
O
“Punjab and Haryana states have adequate water resources, but ground water table has gone lower.”
Analyse this statement.

28. Briefly explain importance of ‘water shed management and rainwater harvesting’ in India.

Section D
29. On the political map of India, locate and label any five of the following with appropriate symbols.
(i) A bauxite mine in MP
(ii) A city with more than 10 million population in Tamil Nadu
(iii) A leading producer of jute
(iv) An oil refinery
(v) An iron-ore mine in Chhattisgarh
(vi) A coal mine in Tamil Nadu
(vii) State with highest population density

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Page 6 NODIA Sample Paper 9 Geography Class 12

30. On the given political map of the world, the following seven features are shown. Identify any five of
these features and write their correct names on the lines marked near each feature.
(i) Largest country in Asia (ii) An area of extensive commercial grain farming
(iii) An area under nomadic herding (iv) An area of mixed farming
(v) An area of nomadic herding (vi) A major seaport
(vii) A major seaport in South America

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Page 1 NODIA Sample Paper 10 Geography Class 12

Sample Paper 10
GEOGRAPHY (029)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 70
General Instructions:
(i) Question paper is divided into 4 sections A, B, C and D
(ii) In section A question number 1 to 17 are MCQ type questions.
(iii)In section B question number 18-23 are SA type questions (80-100 words). Question 18 and 19 are
Source based questions.
(iv) In section C question number 24 to 28 are Long Answer based questions (120-150 words).
(v) In section D question number 29 and 30 are Map based questions having 5 sub parts.

Section A
1. What is the full form of SFDA?
(a) Small Farmers Development Authority (b) Small Farmers Development Area
(c) Small Farmers Development Agency (d) Small Farmers Development Administration

2. When developing countries lag behind developed countries in providing ICT access and benefits to their
citizens, it is known as_______.
(a) digital divide (b) progress lacuna
(c) developmental divide (d) technological lag

3. Consider the following statements and choose the correct option from them:
I. The use of transport and communication depends upon our need to move things from place of their
availability to the place of their use.
II. Human beings use various methods to move goods, commodities, ideas from one place to another.
Options :
(a) Both are incorrect (b) Only II is correct
(c) Both I and II are correct (d) Only statement I is correct

4. Arrange the following activities in a logical sequence.

(i) Do a simple processing of the collected plants and parts.
(ii) Gatherers collect valuable plants or various parts of plants.
(iii) Sell the products in the market.
(iv) Do sorting of collected items.
Choose the correct option:
(a) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i) (b) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
(c) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii) (d) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii)

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Page 2 NODIA Sample Paper 10 Geography Class 12

5. The urban transport system in Kolkata and Delhi is revolutionised by:

(a) CNG Buses
(b) District Road
(c) National Highways
(d) Metro Rail

6. Which among the following is not major factor of population flow from rural to urban areas?
(a) Higher education in urban areas.
(b) Low job opportunities in rural areas.
(c) Higher demand of labour in urban areas.
(d) Unbalanced pattern of development between urban and rural areas.

7. Which of the following is NOT true about Marmagao Port?

(a) It is an artificial harbour in Goa.
(b) It gained significance after its remodelling in 1961 to handle iron-ore exports to Japan.
(c) Construction of Konkan railway has considerably extended the hinterland of this port.
(d) Karnataka, Goa, Southern Maharashtra constitute its hinterland.

8. Which of the following states has a very high percentage of rural population?
(a) Tamil Nadu and Andhra (b) Karnataka and Kerala
(c) Goa and Maharashtra (d) Bihar and Sikkim

9. In which type of societies is the physical environment looked upon as ‘Mother Nature’?
(a) Rural societies (b) Developing societies
(c) Primitive societies (d) Traditional societies

10. In which year among the following General Agreement for Tariffs and Trade was transformed into the
World Trade Organization ?
(a) 1st January 1995
(b) 2nd January 1995
(c) 1st January 1990
(d) 1st January 1985

11. Which of the following columns is not matched correctly?

Pollution Pollutants Involved
(a) Water Sulphates and Sulphides
(b) Noise Noise above tolerance levels
(c) Air Oxides of Sulphur
(d) Land Nitrates and Nitrites

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Page 3 NODIA Sample Paper 10 Geography Class 12

12. Which of the following is correct matched?

Ports Types of cargo handled
(a) Port of Call Commercial ports
(b) Packet Station Ferry port
(c) Oil port Warships and repair workshops
(d) Naval Port Processing and shipping of oil

13. Assertion (A): Human beings do not depend on nature as they have introduced technology.
Reason (R): There is direct dependence of human beings on nature for resources which sustain them.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is false but reason is true.
(d) Assertion is true but reason is false.

14. Assertion (A) : Noise pollution refers to the state of unbearable and uncomfortable to human beings
which is caused by noise from different sources.
Reason (R) : This matter has become a serious concern only in recent years due to a variety of
technological innovations.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is false but reason is true.
(d) Assertion is true but reason is false.

Direction : Read the following graph and answer the question no. 15 to 17.

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Page 4 NODIA Sample Paper 10 Geography Class 12

15. Which region in Bharmaur still lacks sufficient infrastructure?

(a) Holi and Khani areas (b) Tundah and Kugti areas
(c) Villages along the River Ravi (d) Entire Bharmaur tribal area

16. When was the Bharmaur tribal area notified as a tribal area?
(a) 1970 (b) 1974
(c) 1975 (d) 2011

17. Based on the map of Bharmaus region, identify the rivers mentioned in the case study.
(a) River Ravi (b) River Yamuna
(c) River Budhi (d) Both (a) and (c)

Section B
18. Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Gathering and hunting are the oldest economic activity known. These are carries out at different levels
with different orientations. Gathering is practised in regions with harsh climatic conditions. It often
involves primitive societies, who extract, both plants and animals to satisfy their needs for food, shelter
and clothing. This type of activity requires a small amount of capital investment and operates at very
low level of technology. The yield per person is very low and little or no surplus is produced. Gathering
is practiced in high latitude zones which include Northern Canada, Northern Eurasia and Southern
Chile; low latitude zones such as the Amazon Basin, tropical Africa, Northern fringe of Australia and
the interior parts of South-East Asia. Gatherers collect valuable plants such as leaves, barks of trees and
medicinal plants and after simple processing sell the products in the market. Synthetic products often of
better quality and at lower prices, have replaced many items supplied by the gatherers in tropical forests.
It is led to a decrease in gathering activity.
(i) In which type of climatic region, gathering is practiced?
(ii) What is the reason behind constant reduction in gathering activities?
(iii) How do gatherers sustain their life?

19. Observe the given map and answer the questions that follow.

(i) Which states has highest number of agriculture labourers?

(ii) In which activity majority of workers are engaged?
(iii) Which state has maximum percentage of cultivators?

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Page 5 NODIA Sample Paper 10 Geography Class 12

20. Write any four differences between mixed farming with dairy farming.

21. Describe the mineral belts of India.

22. What is World Trade Organisation? Discuss its major functions.

O
Describe balance of trade. When does it became favourable or infavourable for a country?

23. Write any three problems of slums in India.

O
Discuss the situation of water pollution in India by indicating the reasons for it.

Section C
24. How does the change in economy affect the land-use? Why is there decline in pasture land in India?

25. What is the basic principle on which collective farming was based? Describe how it was implemented
in the erstwhile USSR?
26. “The depleting water resources may lead to social conflicts and disputes.” Elaborate it with suitable
examples.
O
What is rainwater harvesting? Discuss its scope and benefits in India to preserve the precious water
resources.

27. Elucidate the concept of ‘trading’ in tertiary sector of economy.

O
Transport is an important tertiary activity. Explain.

28. State two important man-made canals which are important for global commerce.

Section D
29. On the political map of India, locate and label any five of the following with appropriate symbols.
(i) The state with the low population density
(ii) The city in Karnataka with more than 10 million population
(iii) The leading producer state of cotton in India
(iv) Ratnagiri iron ore mine
(v) Mathura oil refinery
(vi) Iron ore mine in Karnataka
(vii) A state with lowest level of urbanisation

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Page 6 NODIA Sample Paper 10 Geography Class 12

30. On the given political map of the world, the following seven features are shown. Identify any five of
these features and write their correct names on the lines marked near each feature.
(i) The largest country in Africa in terms of area (ii) A major seaport
(iii) An area of subsistence gathering
(iv) A country where commercial livestock rearing is practiced
(v) Commercial grain cultivation in South Africa (vi) A major seaport in Europe
(vii) A major airport

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Page 1 NODIA Sample Paper 11 Geography Class 12

Sample Paper 11
GEOGRAPHY (029)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 70
General Instructions:
(i) Question paper is divided into 4 sections A, B, C and D
(ii) In section A question number 1 to 17 are MCQ type questions.
(iii)In section B question number 18-23 are SA type questions (80-100 words). Question 18 and 19 are
Source based questions.
(iv) In section C question number 24 to 28 are Long Answer based questions (120-150 words).
(v) In section D question number 29 and 30 are Map based questions having 5 sub parts.

Section A
1. Which of the following States registered the lowest growth rate of 9.4%?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Karnataka (d) Kerala

2. Name the newly developed port of India which developed to revive Mumbai port:
(a) Kolkata (b) Chennai
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Kandla

3. Which of the following is correctly matched?

(a) Political Geography Electoral Geography
(b) Social Geography Geography of tourism
(c) Settlement Geography Behavioural Geography
(d) Economic Geography Urban/Rural Planning

4. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Geography of well-being Political Studies
(b) Gender geography Women’s Studies
(c) Medical Geography Epidemology
(d) Geography of Resources Resource Economics

5. Which one of the following is not a type of degraded land caused by natural as well as human factors?
(a) Land affected by salinity
(b) Waterlogged areas
(c) Marshy areas
(d) Coastal sands

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Page 2 NODIA Sample Paper 11 Geography Class 12

6. Solid wastes cause health hazards through:

(a) harbouring of flies and rodents
(b) creation of obnoxious smell
(c) carriers of diseases like typhoid, diphtheria, diarrhoea, malaria and cholera
(d) All of the above

7. Which one of the following Railways is considered an engineering marvel?

(a) North Eastern Railway (b) Central Railway
(c) South Western Railway (d) Konkan Railway

8. Arrange the following carriers of load from the earliest to the modern.
(i) Carts and wagons
(ii) Palanquin
(iii) Steam engine
(iv) Humans
Choose the correct option.
(a) iii, i, iv, ii (b) ii, iii, iv, i
(c) iv, ii, i, iii (d) i, iv, iii, ii

9. Which among the following is correct about the first Asia’s Cross country pipeline?
(a) Ankleshwar to Koyali (b) Baruni to Kanpur
(c) Assam to Kanpur (d) Assam to Baruni in Bihar

10. Industries producing breads and biscuits, tea, soaps and toiletries, paper for writing, televisions, etc.,
are______.
(a) traditional industries (b) consumer
(c) consumer based industries (d) secondary industries

11. Mixed farming is found in the_____parts of the world.

(a) highly developed (b) developing
(c) underdeveloped (d) less developed

12. “The assessment, efficient use and conservation of water are necessary to ensure development”. Identify
the values enshrined in the statement.
I. Sustainable development
II. Social awareness
III. Environmental destruction
(a) Only III
(b) Both I and II
(c) Only I
(d) Only II

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Page 3 NODIA Sample Paper 11 Geography Class 12

13. Assertion : The development of railways in the nineteenth century, had a great impact on various
sectors in the USA.
Reason : It opened up continental interiors for commercial grain farming, mining and manufacturing
in the USA.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is false but reason is true.
(d) Assertion is true but reason is false.

14. Assertion (A) : The backwaters (kadal) of Kerala has special significance in Inland Waterway.
Reason (R) : The famous Nehru Boat Race (Vallamkali) is held in the backwaters.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is false but reason is true.
(d) Assertion is true but reason is false.

Direction : Read the following graph and answer the question no. 15 to 17.

15. Which of the following airports is located in Australia?

(a) Lagos (b) Perth
(c) Lima (d) Seattle

16. Which major airport is located in Nigeria?

(a) Lagos (b) Sydney
(c) Rome (d) Beijing

17. Which major airport serves the capital city of Russia?

(a) Jeddah
(b) Moscow
(c) Cape Town
(d) Chennai

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Page 4 NODIA Sample Paper 11 Geography Class 12

Section B
18. Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions:
Patterns of population distribution and density help us to understand the demographic characteristics of
any area. The term population distribution refers to the way people are spaced over the earth’s surface.
Broadly, 90 per cent of the world population lives in about 10 per cent of its land area.
The 10 most populous countries of the world contribute about 60 per cent of the world’s population. Of
these 10 countries, 6 are located in Asia.
(i) What help us to understand the demographic characteristics of any area?
(ii) Explain the term population distribution.
(iii)What percentage does the 10 most populous countries of the world contribute?

19. Study the map given below carefully and answer the questions that follow :

(i) Identify and name the canal shown in the map.

(ii) This canal connect which two sea?
(iii) Write any two characteristics of this canal.

20. Distinguish between Population Density, Physiological Density and Agricultural Density.

21. Mention the types of changes that an economy undergoes, which affect the land use of the region.
O
Why has the Green Revolution strategy in India been more successful in northern India?

22. How do socio-economic factors affect the population distribution in India?

O
Highlight the key aspects of the ‘Period of Population Explosion in India’.

23. What are the main functions of the National Highway Authority of India (NHAI)?

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Section C
24. Describe any five health effects of air pollution.

25. “90 per cent of the world population lives in about 10 per cent of its total land area, whereas the remaining
10 per cent population resides in the 90 per cent of its land area”. Support the statement with suitable
examples.

26. Make a list of the elements that influence the location of a rural village.

27. Discuss in detail three prime about Trans- Continental Railways.

O
Discuss the importance of Inland Waterways.

28. “There is low yield per acre but high yield per person.” Which type of agriculture is being talked about
here? Give a detail brief about this type of agriculture.
O
Classify industries on different the basis of size.

Section D
29. On the given political map of the world, the following seven features are shown. Identify any five of
these features and write their correct names on the lines marked near each feature.
(i) A port of call in Yemen
(ii) An industrial port of South Asia
(iii) An commercial port on Red Sea
(iv) A major area of commercial livestock rearing.
(v) A port on pacific coast of Canada
(vi) A port on South Atlantic Coast of Brazil
(vii) An important country of commercial livestock rearing.

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Page 6 NODIA Sample Paper 11 Geography Class 12

30. On the given political map of India, locate and label any five of the following with appropriate symbols:

(i) The state, which is the leading producer of tea in north-eastern India.
(ii) Identify the state of western India that grows sugarcane.
(iii) Identify the state where hamleted settlements are found in India.
(iv) Identify the largest agglomeration city in India?
(v) Coal mines of Tamil Nadu.
(vi) Bauxite mines of Madhya Pradesh.
(vii) Identify the state of India that has the highest utilisation of groundwater.


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Page 1 NODIA Sample Paper 12 Geography Class 12

Sample Paper 12
GEOGRAPHY (029)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 70
General Instructions:
(i) Question paper is divided into 4 sections A, B, C and D
(ii) In section A question number 1 to 17 are MCQ type questions.
(iii)In section B question number 18-23 are SA type questions (80-100 words). Question 18 and 19 are
Source based questions.
(iv) In section C question number 24 to 28 are Long Answer based questions (120-150 words).
(v) In section D question number 29 and 30 are Map based questions having 5 sub parts.

Section A
1. Which among the following crop is not grown during Zaid season in India?
(a) Rice (b) Fruits
(c) Groundnut (d) Brinjal

2. Olives and figs grow in which type of climate?

(a) Mediterranean Agriculture (b) Sub tropical Agriculture
(c) Extensive Commercial Gram Agriculture (d) Tropical Climate

3. According to which approach of Human Geography does nature get humanised?

(a) Environmental Determinism (b) Possibilism
(c) Non-determinism (d) None of the above

4. Identify the state having highest population density in India as per Census, 2011.
(a) Assam (b) Bihar
(c) West Bengal (d) Uttar Pradesh

5. Which of the following has a direct impact on human beings?

(a) Soils (b) Climate
(c) Relief (d) Minerals

6. Arrange the following religious group of people according to their percentage in the total population of
India.
(a) Christians, Hindus, Muslims, Sikhs
(b) Hindus, Muslims, Christians, Sikhs
(c) Muslims, Christians, Hindus, Sikhs
(d) Sikhs, Muslims, Christians, Hindus

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Page 2 NODIA Sample Paper 12 Geography Class 12

7. In most of the developed countries of the world, population in the higher age group increased due to
(a) increase in the life expectancy rate (b) decline in birth, rate
(c) decline in death rate (d) Both (a) and (b)

8. Which of the following is correctly matched?

Period Approaches
(a) Colonial Period Behavioural School
(b) 1950s–1960s Post Modernism
(c) 1990s Spatial Organisation
(d) 1970s Regional Analysis

9. A sub-field of Political Geography is

(a) Geography of Resources (b) Electoral Geography
(c) Geography of Industries (d) Geography of Marketing

10. Which type of markets are found at places where there are no permanent markets?
(a) Large malls (b) Weekly markets
(c) Rural mandis (d) Urban markets

11. Arrange the following incorrect sequence. Following is the sequence of Iron-ore producing areas from
East to West.
(i) Durg
(ii) Ballari
(iii) Mayurbhanj
(iv) Bailadila
(a) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) (b) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(c) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) (d) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

12. Consider the following statements and choose the correct option.
I In mixed farming agriculture, crops are cultivated and animal husbandry is practiced simultaneously.
II Mixed farming reduces the ‘insecurity associated with,crop failure.
(a) Only Statement I is correct
(b) Both the Statements are true and Statement II correctly present the reasons for Statement I
(c) Only Statement II is correct
(d) Both the Statements I and II are incorrect

13. Identify the region where primitive subsistence agriculture is known as ‘Milpa’.
(a) North-Eastern States of India (b) Central America
(c) Indonesia (d) Malaysia

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Page 3 NODIA Sample Paper 12 Geography Class 12

14. Assertion : Degradation of agricultural land in India has increased.

Reason : Faulty strategy of irrigation and excessive use of fertilisers degrades fertility of land.
(a) Only assertion is correct
(b) Only reason is correct
(c) Both statements . are correct. Statement II correctly explains statement I
(d) Both statements are correct, but not related to each other

Direction : Read the following graph and answer the question no. 15 to 17.

15. Which coal mine is not the part of Jharkhand-Bengal coal belt?
(a) Raniganj
(b) Jharia
(c) Bokaro
(d) Neyveli

16. The HVJ natural gas pipeline connects which of the following regions in India?
(a) Hazira to Vijaipur
(b) Vijaipur to Jagdishpur
(c) Hazira to Jagdishpur
(d) Hazira to Vijaipur and Jagdishpur

17. Kalol oil field is located in which state?

(a) Odisha (b) Rajasthan
(c) Gujarat (d) Jharkhand

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Section B
18. Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions :
India’s urbanisation is attributable primarily to the deregulation of its economy in the 1990s, which
facilitated the growth of the private sector. Despite the fact that India’s urbanisation is accelerating, just
one-third of the country’s population lives in cities. According to the 2011 census, India has 53 cities
with a population of one million or more, with that number expected to climb to 87 by 2031. Some of
these metropolitan regions will grow into huge economic powerhouses, with GDPs exceeding nations
like Israel, Portugal, and the United Arab Emirates. After 1941, India’s four major metropolitan cities,
Kolkata, Delhi, Mumbai and Chennai, saw significant expansion. The country’s economy grew as a
result of the industrial revolution, and the creation of new technology raised people’s living standards
in metropolitan regions. The public sector’s expansion led to the construction of public transportation,
roads, water supply, power, and other urban infrastructure. Some cities, such as Three Tier cities, are
seeing population growth.
Maharashtra was India’s most urbanised mainstate till 1991, falling behind Tamil Nadu in 2001 and third
in 2011, with Kerala coming in second in terms of urban-to-total state population ratio. Although cities
have a huge number of people in a compact area, they offer enormous economies of scale that provide
employment, housing, and services, and they offer tremendous prospects for sustainable development.
It is critical to fully achieve Indian cities’ ecological, economic and social sustainability potential.
However, inclusive planning offers inexpensive transportation, constant water supply, modern sewage
treatment, and a competent, solid waste management system is the only way to harness and maintain
rising urbanisation.
(i) How many cities are having more than one million of the population in India?
(ii) How did the economic growth of India grow after post-1941?
(iii) What is the impact of urbanisation in India?

19. Study the picture given below answer the questions that follow:

(i) Identify the crop in the picture given above.

(ii) Name the leading producer of this crop in India.
(iii)Name the states where the yield level of this crop is high.

20. What are the three types of railway tracks in India?

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Page 5 NODIA Sample Paper 12 Geography Class 12

21. Why is Geography often called the ‘mother of all Sciences’?

O
Give examples of how both physical and human phenomena are described in metaphors using symbols
from the human anatomy.

22. Why is Agricultural Density important for India?

O
What is the National Youth Policy of the Government of India?

23. What is satellite communication? How has it brought revolutionary changes in the field of communication
in the world?

Section C
24. Discuss any three issues that developing nations face regarding urban settlements.

25. What is ‘demographic cycle’? Describe three stages of Demographic Transition Theory?

26. Discuss the major trends of modern industrial activities especially in the developed countries of the
world.
O
Explain why high-tech industries in many countries are being attracted to the peripheral areas of major
metropolitan centres.

27. “Increasing population is the sole reason behind the rising environmental degradation on a global level.”
Justify the statement by citing one example for each one of the four types of pollution.

28. Name the canal which has significantly shortened the distance between Europe and Asia. Write the
importance of this canal.
O
Elaborate the development of communication that led to the development of human beings.

Section D
29. On the given political map of the world, the following seven features are shown. Identify any five of
these features and write their correct names on the lines marked near each feature.
(i) An important industrial region of Russia. (ii) An Inland port of USA of river Mississippi.
(iii) An important industrial region of USA. (iv) A commercial port in Panama.
(v) Country of USA in which subsistence agriculture is practise.
(vi) Eastern Point of Australian Trans-Continental Railway.
(vii) Identify the country where intensive subsistence agriculture is largely found in Asia.
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Page 6 NODIA Sample Paper 12 Geography Class 12

30. On the given political map of India, locate and label any five of the following with appropriate symbols:

(i) Manganese mines of Karnataka

(ii) Headquarters of Southern Railway Zone in India.
(iii) Largest port in India.
(iv) Identify the state which have vast surface water resources in the lagoons and lakes.
(v) The reason in southern Indian where tea is cultivated.
(vi) Bauxite mines of Chhattisgarh.
(vii) India’s first satellite launching station.


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Page 1 NODIA Sample Paper 13 Geography Class 12

Sample Paper 13
GEOGRAPHY (029)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 70
General Instructions:
(i) Question paper is divided into 4 sections A, B, C and D
(ii) In section A question number 1 to 17 are MCQ type questions.
(iii)In section B question number 18-23 are SA type questions (80-100 words). Question 18 and 19 are
Source based questions.
(iv) In section C question number 24 to 28 are Long Answer based questions (120-150 words).
(v) In section D question number 29 and 30 are Map based questions having 5 sub parts.

Section A
1. Which one of the following is not an important demographic characteristic in a country?
(a) Number of children (b) Number of women and men
(c) Occupational structure (d) Number of industries

2. Which one of the following is the best description of a Heat Island?

(a) A hot island.
(b) A built-up area that is hotter than nearby rural areas.
(c) A place near the equator.
(d) A place near the Tropic of Cancer.

3. Which of the following pair is matched correctly?

States Important Crops
(a) Madhya Pradesh Pulses
(b) Rajasthan Rice
(c) Uttar Pradesh Bajra
(d) West Bengal Wheat

4. Which of the following pair is incorrectly matched?

Important Sea Routes Connecting Regions
(a) North Atlantic Sea Route North East USA to North-West Europe
(b) North Pacific Sea Route West Coast of North America to Asia
(c) Cape of Good Hope Sea Route Connect Western Europe to South Africa Countries
(d) South Atlantic Sea Route Connects China to Middle East Region.

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Page 2 NODIA Sample Paper 13 Geography Class 12

5. The land which normally cannot be brought under cultivation with the available technology is called
(a) Forests
(b) Grazing land
(c) Barren land
(d) Fertile land

6. Assertion : Maximum amount of world trade takes place through water transportation.
Reason : Water transportation is much cheaper, than other modes of transportation.
Codes
(a) Only assertion is correct
(b) Only reason is correct
(c) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(d) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation for assertion

7. Which one of the following group of regions have been arranged in the sequence of density per sq. km
(in descending order)?
(a) Asia, Europe, Africa, North America (b) Asia, Africa, North America, Europe
(c) Asia, Africa, Europe, North America (d) Africa, Asia, Europe, North America

8. Arrange the following National waterways of India in correct sentence, according to their length in
descending order.
(i) Sadiya-Dhubri Stretch
(ii) Kottapuram-Kallom Stretch
(iii) Allahabad-Haldia Stretch
(iv) Delta Channel of Mahanadi and Godavari
Codes
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(b) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
(c) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
(d) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)

9. Consider the following statements and choose the correct option from the given options.
I. The main sources of air pollution are combustion of fossil fuels, mining and industries.
II. With increasing use of variety of fuels as source of energy, there is a marked increase in emission
of toxic gasses into atmosphere.
Codes
(a) Only Statement I is correct
(b) Both the Statements are true and Statement II correctly present the reason for Statement I
(c) Only Statements II is correct
(d) Both the Statements I and II are incorrect

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10. Identify which of the following approaches was formulated during the early colonial period in Human
Geography?
(a) Regional analysis (b) Exploration and description
(c) Areal differentiation (d) Spatial organisation

11. Which of the following is not a characteristic of dairy farming practiced in the world?
(a) Veterinary services (b) Labour intensive
(c) Cattle breeding (d) Practiced near rural areas

12. Which of the following is the benefit of outsourcing?

(a) Lower overhead costs (b) Efficiency in work
(c) More profit (d) All of these

13. In which type of farming, farmers pool their resources and generate profits collectively?
(a) Market horticulture (b) Truck farming
(c) Extensive commercial agriculture (d) Co-operative farming

14. Assertion : Majority of the cultivated land in ‘India, directly depends upon rainfall.
Reason : 58% of cultivable land is covered under planned irrigation system.
Codes
(a) Only assertion is correct
(b) Only reason is correct
(c) Both statements are correct. Statement II correctly explains Statement I
(d) Both are correct but not related to each other

Direction : Read the following graph and answer the question no. 15 to 17.

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Page 4 NODIA Sample Paper 13 Geography Class 12

15. The Panama Canal connects which two bodies of water?

(a) Atlantic Ocean and Pacific Ocean (b) Caribbean Sea and Gulf of Mexica
(c) Pacific Ocean and Mediterranean Sea (d) North Sea and Baltic Sea

16. Which country is responsible for the construction of the Panama Canal?
(a) United States (b) Panama
(c) France (d) Colombia

17. How long is the Panama Canal approximately?

(a) 80 km (b) 72 km
(c) 160 km (d) 85 km

Section B
18. Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions:
“Formal expression of religions on landscape is manifested through sacred structures, use of cemeteries
and assemblages of plants and animals, groves of trees for religious purposes. Sacred structures are
widely distributed throughout the country. These may range from inconspicuous village shrines to large
Hindu temples, monumental masjids or ornately designed cathedrals in large metropolitan cities. These
temples, masjids, gurudwaras, monasteries and churches differ in size, form, space—use and density,
while attributing a special dimension to the total landscape of the area.”
(i) Name the most commonly followed religion in India.
(ii) Name the major religions followed in India.
(iii) State the significance of religious landscape.

19. Study the picture given below and answer the following questions:

(i) Identify the type of irrigation shown in the diagram.

(ii) Define the process.
(iii)Define irrigation and also mention its main sources.

20. Evaluate the characteristics of India’s foreign trade.

21. Highlight the key aspects of the ‘Period of Population Explosion in India’.

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Page 5 NODIA Sample Paper 13 Geography Class 12

22. “Physical environment has been greatly modified by human beings, it has also, in turn impacted human
lives.” Explain the statement.
O
“The period from 1951 to 1981 is referred to as a phase of population explosion in India.” Substantiate
the statement.

23. Write three points on how can international trade be detrimental for countries.
O
Assess the role of natural phenomenons in determining the level of international trade of a country.

Section C
24. “Slums have evolved as one of the biggest causes behind rapid environmental degradation in the urban
centres.” Justify.

25. Discuss the world’s basic needs approach to human development.

26. Write a short note on the functional classification of towns.

27. Explain trading services.

O
Write a short note on services.

28. “International trade has shown detrimental effects on under developed and developing economies”. Do
you agree or not? Justify your stand.
O
Categorise the ports on the basis of the specialised functions performed by them.

Section D
29. On the given political map of the world, the following seven features are shown. Identify any five of
these features and write their correct names on the lines marked near each feature.
(i) A port on Southern end of South Africa.
(ii) A port on South Pacific Coast in Australia.
(iii) The country with the lowest density of population in Asia.
(iv) Name the country with the smallest population of Asia.
(v) Important Iron and steel centre in U.K.
(vi) Eastern terminal of Trans-Siberian Railway.
(vii) The region responsible for 80 per cent of Germany’s total steel production.

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Page 6 NODIA Sample Paper 13 Geography Class 12

30. On the given political map of India, locate and label any five of the following with appropriate symbols:

(i) Identify the state of India that utilised underground at a moderate rate.
(ii) The oldest operational port in India.
(iii) Identify the port that was built during the India-Pakistan partition.
(iv) Choose the town which has been known as a tourist destination in Rajasthan.
(v) Manganese mines of Odisha.
(vi) Copper mines of Jharkhand.
(vii) Identify the town which has been developed as administrative headquarters.


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Page 1 NODIA Sample Paper 14 Geography Class 12

Sample Paper 14
GEOGRAPHY (029)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 70
General Instructions:
(i) Question paper is divided into 4 sections A, B, C and D
(ii) In section A question number 1 to 17 are MCQ type questions.
(iii)In section B question number 18-23 are SA type questions (80-100 words). Question 18 and 19 are
Source based questions.
(iv) In section C question number 24 to 28 are Long Answer based questions (120-150 words).
(v) In section D question number 29 and 30 are Map based questions having 5 sub parts.

Section A
1. Which among the following theory is given by Griffith Taylor?
(a) Behaviouralism (b) New Modernism
(c) Environmentalism (d) Neo-determinism

2. Which of the following pairs is matched correctly?

List I List II
(Type of Agriculture) (Features)
(a) Subsistence Agriculture Production of citrus fruits
(b) Dairy farming Milching of animals
(c) Plantation Agriculture Slash and burn agriculture
(d) Mediterranean Dominance of rice crop
Agriculture

3. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

List I List II (Years)
(Acts/Policy)
(a) Water (Prevention and Control Pollution) Act 1. 1974
(b) Environment Protection Act 2. 1986
(c) The Water Less Act 3. 1988
(d) National Water Policy. 4. 2002

4. Nomadic herding is practiced in which of the following regions?

(a) Mongolia (b) Central China
(c) Island of Madagascar (d) All of the above

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Page 2 NODIA Sample Paper 14 Geography Class 12

5. Identify the Union Territory with highest population density as per Census of 2011?
(a) Lakshadweep (b) Puducherry
(c) Chandigarh (d) Delhi

6. Arrange the following in correct sequence.

(i) Air transport was provided by four major companies.
(ii) Air transport launch between Allahabad and Naini.
(ii) Air transport was nationalised.
(iv) Indian airlines merged with Air India.
(a) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) (b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(c) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (d) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

7. Identify the correct order of location from East to West, for the given coal fields of India.
(a) Singareni, Singrauli, Nizira, Namphuk (b) Singrauli, Nizira, Namphuk, Singareni
(c) Nizira, Namphuk, Singrauli, Singareni (d) Namphuk, Nizira, Singrauli, Singareni

8. Assertion (A): Plantation agriculture was introduced by Europeans.

Reason (R): It is mainly a profit oriented large scale production system.
Codes
(a) Only assertion is correct
(b) Only reason is correct
(c) Both statements are correct. Statement II correctly explains Statement I
(d) Both are correct but not related to each other

9. Which of the following are the features of Agriculture land in India?

(a) Quality of land directly influence producity of agriculture in India.
(b) Zaid crops are grown in major parts of North India.
(c) Net sown area is declining continously.
(d) More than seventy per cent of cultivable land is under planned irrigation.

10. Assertion (A): Rice is grown during kharif season.

Reason (R): Rice is a water intensive crop.
Codes
(a) Only assertion is correct
(b) Only reason is correct
(c) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason correctly explains assertion
(d) Both are correct, but not related to each other

11. Which of the following is the subfield of Economic Geography?

(a) Military Geography (b) Historical Geography
(c) Medical Geography (d) Geography of Marketing

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Page 3 NODIA Sample Paper 14 Geography Class 12

12. Gujarat has the highest potential for development of which kind of energy?
(a) Nuclear (b) Geothermal
(c) Hydel (d) Solar

13. In which among the following type of agriculture practice, farmer’s only grow vegetables?
(a) Mixed farming (b) Subsistence agriculture
(c) Plantation agriculture (d) Truck farming

14. Consider the following statements and choose the correct option from the given options.
I. USA has a dense network of oil pipelines which runs from producing areas to the consuming areas.
II. Pipeline transport is available and cost effective of transportation of petroleum and natural gas
from one place to another.
Codes
(a) Only Statement I is correct
(b) Both the statements are true and Statement II correctly present the reason for Statement I
(c) Only Statement II is correct
(d) Both the Statements I and II are incorrect

Direction : Read the following case study and answer the question no. 15 to 17.
Benda lives in the wilds of the Abujh Maad area of Central India. His village consists of three huts deep
in the wilds. Not even birds or stray dogs that usually crowd villages can be seen in these areas. Wearing
a small loin cloth and armed with his axe he slowly surveys the penda (forest) where his tribe practices
a primitive form of agriculture called shifting cultivation. Benda and his friends burn small patches of
forest to clear them for cultivation. The ash is used for making the soil fertile. Benda is happy that the
Mahua trees around him are in bloom. How lucky I am to be a part of this beautiful universe, he thinks as
he looks up to see the Mahua, Palash and Sal trees that have sheltered him since childhood. Crossing the
penda in a gliding motion, Benda makes his way to a stream. As he bends down to scoop up a palmful
of water, he remembers to thank Loi-Lugi, the spirit of the forest for allowing him to quench his thirst.
Moving on with his friends, Benda chews on succulent leaves and roots. The boys have been trying to
collect Gajjhara and Kuchla, from the forest. These are special plants that Benda and his people use. He
hopes the spirits of the forest will be kind and lead him to these herbs. These are needed to barter in the
madhai or tribal fair coming up the next full moon.
He closes his eyes and tries hard to recall what the elders had taught him about these herbs and the places
they are found in. He wishes he had listened more carefully. Suddenly there is a rustling of leaves. Benda
and his friends know it is the outsiders who have come searching for them in the wilds. In a single fluid
motion Benda and his friends disappear behind the thick canopy of trees and become one with the spirit
of the forest.

15. Benda practises which of the following type of agriculture?

(a) Subsistence gathering (b) Slash and burn cultivation
(c) Extensive grain farming (d) Horticulture

16. The state of the society in the passage can be described by which of the following terms?
(a) Neo Determinism (b) Areal Differentiation
(c) Possibilism (d) Environmental Determinism
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Page 4 NODIA Sample Paper 14 Geography Class 12

17. Benda collects which of these forest products for their use?
(a) Pine (b) Coconut
(c) Kuchla (d) Ashok

Section B
18. Read the information given below and answer the following questions:
Case Study : A Role Model to Restore the Ecology and Safeguard.
Based on the universal law ‘Polluter pays’, effort to restore the ecology and safeguard the human health
with people’s participation has taken place in Daurala near Meerut. These efforts are now bearing fruits
after a span of three years when Meerut based NGO had developed a model for ecological restoration.
The meeting of the Daurala Industries officials, NGOs, Government officials and other stakeholders
at Meerut has brought out results. The powerful logics, authentic studies and the pressure of people
have brought a new lease of life to the twelve thousand residents of this village. It was in the year
2003 that the pitiable condition of Dauralaites drew the attention of the civil society. The groundwater
of this village was contaminated with heavy metals.The reason was that the untreated wastewater of
Daurala industries was leaching to the groundwater table. The NGO conducted a door to door survey of
the health status of the residents and came out with a report. The organisation, the village community
and people’s representatives sat together to find out sustainable solutions to the health problem. The
industrialists showed a keen interest towards checking the deteriorating ecology. The overhead water
tank’s capacity in the village was enhanced and a 900m extra pipeline was laid to supply potable water
to the community. The silted pond of the village was cleaned and recharged by desilting it. Large
quantity of silt was removed paving way to large quantity of water so that it recharged the aquifers.
Rainwater harvesting structures have been constructed at different places which has helped in diluting
the contaminants of the groundwater after the monsoons. 1000 trees have also been planted which have
improved the environment.
(i) What is main reason for contaminated groundwater in Daurala?
(ii) How the water problem of Daurala’s community got sorted?
(iii)What steps were taken to improve the condition of Daurala?

19. Study the picture given below answer the questions that follow:

(i) Identify the crop in the picture given above.

(ii) Name the state in north India where this crop is grown.
(iii)Name two states in western India which produce this crop.

20. Explain the main features of rural settlements.

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21. What is Cyberspace? Describe any two advantages of internet.

O
Explain three functions of WTO.

22. “The Golden Quadrilateral is a milestone endeavour of the National Highway Development Project”.
Elaborate.
O
State the three main advantages of waterways.

23. Explain with examples three economic factors influencing the population distribution in the world.

Section C
24. How do the physical factors affect the population distribution in India?

25. Describe the main features and development of commercial grazing in different types of grasslands.

26. Describe in brief the different trends of population growth in the world from an early period to the
present day.
O
Explain the three components of population change in the world. Analyse the impacts of population
change.

27. Define ‘Human Geography’ in your own words. Mention any four fields of Human Geography.
O
Support the statement “Nature is extremely important to develop technology”.

28. Mention and discuss the land-use categories as maintained in the Land Revenue records.

Section D
29. On the given political map of the world, the following seven features are shown. Identify any five of
these features and write their correct names on the lines marked near each feature.
(i) Busiest Airport of Asia
(ii) A canal that connects Mediterranean Sea with Red Sea.
(iii) Western terminal of Trans-Canadian Railway.
(iv) Important industrial region in South-Asia.
(v) An important Iron and steel centre in Russia.
(vi) Nation that has emerged as leading country of medical tourism in the world.
(vii) Busiest port of the world on the mouth of Yangtze River in China

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30. On the given political map of India, locate and label any five of the following with appropriate symbols:

(i) Natural harbour in the state of Kerala.

(ii) Oil refineries Gujarat.
(iii) Coal mine in Jharkand.
(iv) The state which is the leading producer of jute in India.
(v) Identify the port that handel a large portion of India’s crude oil imports.
(vi) Identify the state has the highest proportion of urban population in India according to 2011 Census.
(vii) The state which is the leading producer of wheat in India.


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Page 1 NODIA Sample Paper 15 Geography Class 12

Sample Paper 15
GEOGRAPHY (029)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 70
General Instructions:
(i) Question paper is divided into 4 sections A, B, C and D
(ii) In section A question number 1 to 17 are MCQ type questions.
(iii)In section B question number 18-23 are SA type questions (80-100 words). Question 18 and 19 are
Source based questions.
(iv) In section C question number 24 to 28 are Long Answer based questions (120-150 words).
(v) In section D question number 29 and 30 are Map based questions having 5 sub parts.

Section A
1. During which of the following phases, India’s population growth rate has declined?
(a) 1901-1921 (b) 1921-1951
(c) 1951-1981 (d) 1981- till present

2. Identify the Union Territory having lowest population density as per Census 2011.
(a) Andaman and Nicobar (b) Lakshadweep
(c) Daman and Diu (d) Puducherry

3. Which group of states is highly affected by concentration of fluoride in groundwater resources?

(a) Uttar Pradesh – Bihar (b) Bihar – West Bengal
(c) Rajasthan – Maharashtra (d) Punjab – Haryana

4. Which of the following groups of Union Territories (UTs) have been arranged in the sequence of their
ranks in terms of population density as per Census 2011 (in the descending order)?
(a) Chandigarh, Puducherry, Daman and Diu, Delhi
(b) Delhi, Chandigarh, Puducherry, Daman and Diu
(c) Daman and Diu, Delhi, Puducherry, Chandigarh
(d) Puducherry, Delhi, Chandigarh, Daman and Diu

5. Assertion : Land degradation is majorly a human induced disaster.

Reason : Deforestation, overgrazing and quarry causes land degradation.
(a) Only assertion is correct
(b) Only reason is correct
(c) Both statements are correct. Reason correctly explains assertion.
(d) Both are correct but not related to each other
6. Who among the following gave the concept of Neo-Determinism?
(a) Griffith Taylor (b) Paul Vidal de la Blache
(c) Ellen C Semple (d) Ratzel

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Page 2 NODIA Sample Paper 15 Geography Class 12

7. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

List I List II
(a) India’s total area 2.45%
(b) World’s water resources in India 6%
(c) World’s total population in India 16%
(d) World’s availability from surface and groundwater in India 1869 cubic km

8. Assertion : Hamleted settlements are fragmented into several units which are physically separated from
each other.
Reason : Hamleted settlements are formed due to segmentation of large village on the basis of ethic and
social factors.
(a) Only assertion is correct
(b) Only reason is correct
(c) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation for assertion.
(d) Both assertion and reason are correct but not related to each other

9. Which of the following is not a characteristic of dairy farming practiced in the world?
(a) Veterinary services (b) Labour intensive
(c) Cattle breeding (d) Practiced near rural areas

10. ‘Ladang’ is the name of which of the following agricultural systems?

(a) Plantation Agriculture (b) Primitive Subsistence Agriculture
(c) Mixed Farming (d) Dairy Farming

11. This Union Territory has the lowest population density among all the UTs of India as per Census 2011?
Select the correct options.
(a) Lakshadweep (b) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(c) Puducherry (d) Chandigarh

12. Which among the following is a correctly matched pair?

List I List II
(Type of Agriculture) (Regions)
(a) Mediterranean Agriculture Tunisia
(b) Co-operative farming USA
(c) Dairy farming Netherlands
(d) Mixed farming Canada

13. Arrange the following approaches of Human Geography as per their period of origin.
(i) Possibilism
(ii) Neo-determinism
(iii) Environmental determinism
(iv) Post-modernism

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Page 3 NODIA Sample Paper 15 Geography Class 12

(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (b) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(c) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv) (d) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)

14. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer.
I. The dichotomy or differences between the physical and human geography is not a very valid one.
II. Nature and human are inseparable elements and they are to be seen as comprehensively.
(a) Only Statement I is correct
(b) Only Statement II is correct
(c) Both the statements are correct and statement II correctly explains statement I
(d) Both the statements are incorrect

Direction : Read the following case study and answer the question no. 15 to 17.
Bharmaur tribal area comprises Bharmaur and Holi tehsils of Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh. It is
a notified tribal area since 21st November, 1975. Bharmaur is inhabited by `Gaddi’, a tribal community
who have maintained a distinct identity in the Himalayan region as they practised transhumance and
conversed through Gaddiali dialect. Bharmaur tribal region has harsh climate conditions, low resource
base and fragile environment. These factors have influenced the society and Economy of the region.
According to the 2011 Census, the total population of Bharmaur sub-division was 39,113 i.e., 21 persons
per sq km. It is one of the most (economically and socially) backward areas of Himachal Pradesh.
Historically, the Gaddis have experienced geographical and political isolation and socio-economic
deprivation.
The economy is largely based on agriculture and allied activities such as sheep and goat rearing. The
process of development of tribal area of Bharmaur started in 1970s when Gaddis were included among
‘scheduled tribes’. Under the Fifth Five Year Plan, the tribal sub-plan was introduced in 1974 and
Bharmaur was designated as one of the five Integrated Tribal Development Projects (ITDP) in Himachal
Pradesh.
The most significant contribution of triba sub-plan in Bharmaur region is the development of infrastructure
in terms of schools, healthcare facilities, potable water, roads, communications and electricity. But the
villages located along the river Ravi in Holi and Khani areas are the main beneficiaries of infrastructural
development.
The social benefits derived from ITDP include tremendous increase in literacy rate, improvement in
sex ratio and decline in child marriage. The female literacy rate in the region increased from 1.88 per
cent in 1971 to 65 per cent in 2011. The difference between males and females in literacy level i.e.
gender inequality, has also declined. Traditionally, the Gaddis had subsistence agricultural-cum-pastoral
economy having emphasis on foodgrains and livestock production. But during the last three decades of
twentieth century, the cultivation of pulses and other cash crops has increased in Bharmaur region.

15. Gaddis practise which of the following type of primary activity?

(a) Transhumance (b) Extensive Grain farming
(c) Shifting cultivation (d) Intensive paddy cultivation

16. The population density of Gaddis lies in which of the following categories?
(a) Moderate Density (b) Low Density
(c) High Density (d) None of these

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17. ITDP has resulted in improvements in which of the following social indicators in Bharmaur Region?
(a) Sex Ratio (b) Female Literacy
(c) Female Foeticide (d) Only (a) and (b)

Section B
18. Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions:
The population growth or population change refers to the change in number of inhabitants of a territory
during a specific period of time. This change may be positive as well as negative. It can be expressed
either in terms of absolute numbers or in terms of percentage. Population change in an area is an
impor¬tant indicator of economic development, social upliftment and historical and cultural background
of the region.
(i) Define population growth.
(ii) Give one characteristic of population change.
(iii)What is the importance of population growth?

19. Study the picture given below and answer the following questions:

(i) Identify the conservational method depicted in the diagram.

(ii) What do the cloud and water droplets represent in the diagram?
(iii)Describe the method depicted in the diagram.

20. What do you mean by urban agglomeration?

21. In what ways, developed network of transportation and communication help international trade?
O
Write three points on how can international trade be detrimental for countries.

22. Describe any three advantages of community participation under Common Property Resources.

23. Describe how international trade has changed over the years in India?
O
Give two important characteristics of India’s marine ports. Name any two states which have two major
ports.

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Page 5 NODIA Sample Paper 15 Geography Class 12

Section C
24. Explain any three aims of Human Geography.
O
What do you mean by Dualism in Geography?

25. “Indian ports continued to flourish after independence, despite the setback inflicted by partition.” Support
the statement with examples.

26. In most Indian ports, modern infrastructure amenities are present. Many private enterprises have been
asked to participate in the modernisation of the country’s ports. Indian ports’ cargo handling capacity has
grown from 20 million tonnes in 1951 to over 586 million tonnes in 2008-09. There are now 12 major
ports and 200 smaller or intermediate ports operating in India. Major ports handle a bigger portion of
overall traffic. 26. “Human progress is not directly proportional to the size of a territory or per capita
income.” Give instances to back up your assertion.
O
What is the definition of human development? Examine the four pillars of development.

27. Write the distribution of Iron Ore in India.

28. Discuss Industries based on Inputs or Raw Materials.

Section D
29. On the given political map of the world, the following seven features are shown. Identify any five of
these features and write their correct names on the lines marked near each feature.
(i) Identify the region is famous for its copper belt in Africa.
(ii) Identify the country with most population in the Asian continent.
(iii) One of the important country where commercial livestock rearing is practices.
(iii) Which one of the following is a thickly populated region in Japan?
(iv) Countries that has the highest sex ratio in the world?
(v) Identify the country that use Gross National Happiness.
(g) The country which has highest Human Development Report in 2020.

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Page 6 NODIA Sample Paper 15 Geography Class 12

30. On the given political map of India, locate and label any five of the following with appropriate symbols:

(i) Coal mine in Jharkhand.

(ii) Identify the state that has highest density of population.
(iii) Identify the mining town in Gujarat.
(iv) Iron mine in Chhattishgarh.
(v) Identify states that has the lowest female literacy rate.
(vi) Nuclear power plant in Rajasthan.
(vii) Identify the important transport city in Kerala.


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Page 1 NODIA Sample Paper 16 Geography Class 12

Sample Paper 16
GEOGRAPHY (029)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 70
General Instructions:
(i) Question paper is divided into 4 sections A, B, C and D
(ii) In section A question number 1 to 17 are MCQ type questions.
(iii)In section B question number 18-23 are SA type questions (80-100 words). Question 18 and 19 are
Source based questions.
(iv) In section C question number 24 to 28 are Long Answer based questions (120-150 words).
(v) In section D question number 29 and 30 are Map based questions having 5 sub parts.

Section A
1. Which of the following is the best example of tertiary activities?
(a) Trade and Commerce (b) Transport
(c) Communication (d) All of these

2. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

List I List II
(a) The French developed cocoa and coffee plantations in West Africa.
(b) The British developed large tea gardens in India and Sri Lanka.
(c) The Americans developed rubber plantations in Malaysia and sugarcane and
banana plantations in West Indies.
(d) The Spanish and the Americans developed coconut and sugarcane plantations in the Philippines.

3. Which of the following states has a high demand of groundwater?

(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Punjab
(c) Gujarat (d) Kerala

4. The important mineral available in the North-Eastern plateau region mineral belt is
(a) Iron ore (b) Coal
(c) Manganese (d) All of these

5. Arrange the following features of Human Geography as per their period of origin.
(i) Emergence of three new schools of thought.
(ii) Use of sophisticated statistical tools.
(iii) Universal theories to explain the human conditions were questioned.
(iv) Elaborate description of all aspects of a region were undertaken.
Codes
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (b) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
(c) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii) (d) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)
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Page 2 NODIA Sample Paper 16 Geography Class 12

6. Which of the following is not a feature of plantation agriculture?

(a) Large estates (b) Crop specialisation
(c) Heavy capital investment (d) Highly skilled labour

7. Assertion : Human Geography is considered as highly interdisciplinary in nature.

Reason : Human Geography develops close linkage with other sister disciples in Social Science.
(a) Only assertion is correct
(b) Only reason is correct
(c) Both are correct and reason correctly explains assertion
(d) Both are correct but not related to each other

8. Which among the following pairs is correctly matched?

List I List II (Share in world Population)
(Region)
(a) Asia 69.5%
(b) Africa 10.9%
(c) North America 8.8%
(d) Europe 9.7%

9. Which one of the following group of states have been arranged in sequence of their ranks in terms of
population distribution (Census 2011)?
(a) Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh
(b) Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal
(c) Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal
(d) Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Bihar, Rajasthan

10. Which of the following best signifies the nature of Human Geography?
(a) It covers all the elements created by men only.
(b) It covers all the elements created by nature only.
(c) It covers all the elements created by nature as well as men.
(d) None of the above

11. Consider the following statements and choose the correct options from given below.
I. Road transport is cheap and faster mode of transport.
II. It is highly preferred for long distance trade of goods.
(a) Only Statement I is correct
(b) Only Statement II is correct
(c) Both the Statements are true and Statement II correctly present the reason for Statement I
(d) Both the Statements I and II are incorrect

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Page 3 NODIA Sample Paper 16 Geography Class 12

12. Human beings interact with the physical environment with which of the following?
(a) Tools (b) Technology
(c) Skills (d) None of these

13. Due to which reason were Mediterranean regions among the most favourable places to live since human
history?
(a) Fertile soil (b) Industrial development
(c) Transport facilities (d) Pleasant climate

14. Assertion : Plastic bags are harmful for environment.

Reason : They take many years to get decomposed.
(a) Only assertion is correct
(b) Only reason is correct
(c) Both are correct and reason correctly explains assertion
(d) Both are correct but not related to each other

Direction : Read the following case study and answer the question no. 15 to 17.
Indira Gandhi Canal, previously known as the Rajasthan Canal, is one of the largest canal systems in
India. Conceived by Kanwar Sain in 1948, the canal project was launched on 31st March, 1958. The
total planned length of the system is 9,060 km catering to the irrigation needs of a total culturable
command area of 19.63 lakh hectares. Out of the total command area, about 70 per cent was envisaged
to be irrigated by flow system and the rest by lift system. The construction work of the canal system has
been carried out through two stages. The command area of Stage-I lies in Ganganagar, Hanumangarh
and Northern part of Bikaner districts. It has a gently undulating topography and its culturable command
area is 5.53 lakh hectares. The command area of Stage-II is spread over Bikaner, Jaisalmer, Barmer,
Jodhpur, Nagaur and Churu districts covering culturable command area of 14.10 lakh hectares. It
comprises desert land dotted with shifting sand dunes and temperature soaring to 50°C in summers. In
the lift canal, the water is lifted up to make it to flow against the slope of the land. All the lift canals of
Indira Gandhi Canal system originate at the left bank of main canal while all the canals on the right bank
of main canal are flow channels.
Irrigation in Stage-I command area of the canal was introduced in early 1960s, whereas, the command
area of Stage-II began receiving irrigation in mid-1980s. The introduction of canal irrigation in this dry
land has transformed its ecology, economy and society. It has influenced the environmental conditions of
the region both positively as well as negatively. The availability of soil moisture for a longer period of time
and various afforestation and pasture development programmes under CAD have resulted in greening
the land. This has also helped in reducing wind erosion and siltation of canal systems. Introduction of
canal irrigation has brought about a perceptible transformation in the agricultural economy of the region.
Soil moisture has been a limiting factor in successful growing of crops in this area. Spread of canal
irrigation has led to increase in cultivated area and intensity of cropping.

15. The negative effects of Indira Gandhi Canal project includes

(a) Salinisation (b) Water logging
(c) Groundwater reduction (d) Both (a) and (b)

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16. After introduction of Indira Gandhi Canal, it has resulted in what type of agriculture in the command
areas?
(a) Intensive Agriculture (b) Extensive Agriculture
(c) Commercial Agriculture (d) Horticulture

17. The Indira Gandhi canal originates from

(a) Beas Kund (b) Harike Barrage
(c) Govind Sagar Dam (d) Bhakra Dam

Section B
18. Read the Case Study given below and answer the questions that follow:
At Singareni, Canaries to miners’ rescue
Singareni collieries, the country’s premier coal production company, still uses canaries to detect the
presence of deadly carbon monoxide in underground mines. Miners collapse and often die even if small
quantities of the highly poisonous CO are present in the air. Though, miners speak lovingly of the
canaries, the underground experience is not at all pleasant for the birds. When lowered into mines with
CO presence, the birds show distress symptoms such as ruffling of feathers, pronounced chirping and
loss of life. These reactions occur even if 0.15 per cent of CO is present in the air. If the content is 0.3
per cent the bird shows immediate distress and falls off its perch in two to three minutes. A cage of birds
is a good indicator in air containing more than 0.15 per cent CO, said a coal miner.
The sophisticated hand held CO detectors introduced by the company can detect CO concentrations
from as low as 10 ppm to as high as 1,000 ppm. But despite this, the miners trust the birds, who have
saved the lives of several of their predecessors.
Deccan Chronicle, 26.08.2006
(i) Which premier coal production company still uses canaries to detect the presence of deadly carbon
monoxide in underground mines?
(ii) Why the underground experience is not at all pleasant for the birds.
(iii)What is the amount that sophisticated hand held CO detectors can measure CO concentrations?

19. Study the given data and answer the following questions :

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Page 5 NODIA Sample Paper 16 Geography Class 12

(i) Why does Delhi tops the list of internet users in India?
(ii) Where does India stand in the number of internet subscribers, globally?
(iii) What is ‘Digital India’?

20. “The Mumbai High is one of the major causes of marine pollution in the Arabian Sea.” Examine with
examples.

21. What factors are responsible for different types of rural settlements in India?
O
Give two characteristics of urban settlements in India. How are cities connected to rural settlements?

22. Write a short note on pipelines.

O
List the various steps for better urban transport solution.

23. What are three characteristics of last stage of Demographic Transition Theory?

Section C
24. Why is the water quality in the plains the worst?

25. Define the term ‘mixed farming’. Explain any four characteristics of mixed farming practiced in the
world.

26. What is environmental determinism?

O
What do you mean by “Naturalization of Humans and Humanization of Nature”?

27. Discuss the four phases of population growth in India.

28. With respect to developed and developing notion, what do yo mean population change?
O
Describe the basic concept which are given below:
1. Growth of population 2. Growth rate of population
3. Natural growth of population 4. Positive growth of population
5. Negative growth of population

Section D
29. On the given political map of the world, the following seven features are shown. Identify any five of
these features and write their correct names on the lines marked near each feature.

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Page 6 NODIA Sample Paper 16 Geography Class 12

(i) Identify the Sea in which Volga River drain and this river provide waterway upto 11,200 km.
(ii) Identify the city where the headquarter of EU is located.
(iii) Identify the region that connect interior part of USA through Mississippi-Ohio waterway.
(iv) An important Iron and steel centre in Japan.
(v) Hub for technology companies in USA.
(vi) Western terminal of Trans-Siberian railway.
(vii) An important Iron and steel centre in USA.

30. On the given political map of India, locate and label any five of the following with appropriate symbols:

(i) Important manganese field in Maharasthra.

(ii) Identify the religious and cultural town in Punjab.
(iii) Iron mine in Karnataka. (iv) Important administrative town in Assam.
(v) Important coal mine in Chhattishgarh. (vi) Identify oil refinery in Madhya Pradesh.
(vii) Important iron ore exporting port in Odisha.


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